PSYC Psychology Chapter 14 answers complete solutions for any quiz and exam

PSYC Psychology Chapter 14 answers complete solutions for any quiz and exam

If you find any question here in your quiz or exam, then download this. You can find every answers for your quiz or exam and get A+ grade.

1. Which of the following individuals exhibits behaviors that would be considered maladaptive?

a) Michael, who wears women's clothing when no one is looking

b) Stanley, who battles depression

c) Gary, who believes that he is the son of George Washington

d) Irving, who hears voices

e) Roy, who continues to use drugs despite the effects on his health and functioning

2. George was committed to a mental institution after he was caught happily shopping at the local supermarket without any clothes on. By what criterion is George's behavior considered abnormal?

a) Dangerousness

b) Maladaptive behavior

c) Social deviation

d) Emotional distress

e) Faulty perceptions or interpretations of reality

3. Perceptions are to ________ as beliefs are to ________.

a) anxiety; depression

b) delusions; hallucinations

c) compulsions; obsessions

d) obsessions; compulsions

e) hallucinations; delusions

4. Gina believes that she is the secret love child of Princess Diana and Elton John. Since she really is not their child, Gina's belief is considered a(n)

a) manic cognition.

b) delusion.

c) hallucination.

d) obsession.

e) compulsion.

5. Dhat syndrome is

a) a syndrome found exclusively in sub-Saharan Africa.

b) a faulty interpretation of reality.

c) a culture-bound syndrome.

d) a psychotic disorder.

e) a schizoid syndrome.

6. The American Psychiatric Association once considered homosexuality a type of mental disorder but no longer does today. This fact is an example of which way that culture influences ideas about abnormality?

a) The same behavior may be judged abnormal at some points at time, but not at others.

b) Some forms of abnormal behavior in a particular culture may have no direct counterpart in another culture.

c) The same behavior can be normal in one culture, but abnormal in another.

d) Abnormal behavior patterns may be expressed differently in different cultures.

e) Some behaviors may be abnormal in the majority culture, but normal in the minority culture.

7. When Sing, a Chinese man, experiences depression, which is he most likely to report?

a) Feeling sadness

b) Having headaches

c) Experiencing guilt

d) Feeling hopeless

e) Being confused

8. Perhaps the earliest idea regarding abnormal behavior was that

a) supernatural forces were at work.

b) the brains of people displaying abnormal behavior were defective.

c) it was the product of the inappropriate use of rewards and punishments.

d) it was the result of a moral weakness.

e) irrational or distorted thinking leads to emotional problems.

9. The first modern model of abnormal behavior was the

a) social model.

b) psychological model.

c) culture-based model.

d) medical model.

e) exorcism model.

10. Historically, when did the shift to a medical model of mental illness occur?

a) Between the fifteenth and the seventeenth centuries

b) Between the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries

c) Between 1900 and 1920

d) Between 1930 and 1950

e) Between 1960 and 1980

11. The earliest important psychological model of abnormal behavior was the

a) biological model.

b) social model.

c) learning model.

d) biopsychosocial model.

e) psychodynamic model.

12. According to Freud, abnormal behavior results from

a) abnormal brain development.

b) unresolved unconscious conflicts from childhood.

c) learning experiences in early childhood.

d) genetic predispositions interacting with early learning experiences.

e) the social ills of society.

13. Garth goes to a psychodynamic therapist for treatment of his anxiety. What will be the goal of Garth's therapy?

a) To unroot unconscious conflicts that have given rise to his anxiety

b) To determine the biological cause of his anxiety and find the right drug to treat it

c) To become aware of his true feelings, fix his self-image, and come to accept himself the way he is

d) To identify and change the irrational thought patterns that have led to his anxiety

e) To determine how factors such as his gender, social class, and ethnicity interact to make him anxious

14. According to Freud, psychological symptoms

a) arise from disturbed brain chemistry.

b) are an unconscious cry for attention.

c) represent the expression of inner turmoil.

d) are produced voluntarily to obtain sympathy.

e) are learned through experience.

15. Models based on classical conditioning were useful in developing explanations of

a) separation anxiety.

b) phobias.

c) schizophrenia.

d) depression.

e) self-actualization.

16. Behavioral models of abnormality assume that abnormal behavior is

a) learned in much the same way that normal behavior is learned.

b) best explained by a different set of learning principles from those governing normal behavior.

c) largely unlearned, but can be brought under the influence of the environment.

d) the result of a blockage of a person's natural potential.

e) largely the result of genetics, but can be influenced by learning.

17. In experiments with Little Albert, Watson demonstrated the

a) need to consider cognitive, as well as learning, influences in abnormal behavior.

b) ease with which phobias can be eliminated.

c) role of classical conditioning in the development of phobias.

d) ease with which instinctual fears are demonstrated in young children.

e) role of observational learning in fostering aggression.

18. Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow are associated with which model of abnormal behavior?

a) Sociocultural

b) Humanistic

c) Psychodynamic

d) Cognitive

e) Behavioral

19. Humanistic theorists contend that abnormal behavior

a) is the result of unconscious processes.

b) is the result of conditioning.

c) develops from encountering obstacles on the road to personal growth.

d) involves distorted cognitions as well as learning influences.

e) reflects the absence of basic human values, such as morality and good judgment.

20. Fannie goes to a humanistic therapist. When she talks about her frustrations with attempting to satisfy other people's demands, her therapist may suggest that Fannie's attempts could lead to

a) a distorted self-image.

b) an inability to learn from experience.

c) an inflated ego.

d) unconscious aggressive desires.

e) a major nervous breakdown.

21. Dr. Tomlin is a therapist working from the cognitive perspective. Tomlin is likely to explain abnormal behavior in terms of

a) the role of repressed thoughts and beliefs.

b) failure to achieve self-actualization.

c) classical conditioning.

d) the combination of classical and operant conditioning.

e) irrational or distorted thinking.

22. The sociocultural model explains abnormal behavior in terms of

a) disturbed learning processes.

b) failures of society and social ills.

c) distorted thinking.

d) failure of certain cultures to promote self-actualization.

e) problems within the individual.

23. A sociocultural theorist might explain a person's depression as due to

a) the lack of certain neurotransmitters in the brain.

b) genetic predisposition.

c) having been rewarded for such behavior in the past.

d) poverty and lack of opportunity.

e) irrational or distorted thinking.

24. Major support for the sociocultural model of abnormal behavior is provided by evidence that

a) labeling people ensures that they will be appropriately treated.

b) psychological disorders appear with the same frequency in all cultures studied.

c) rich people rarely suffer psychological disorders.

d) severe disorders such as schizophrenia and depression are more prevalent in impoverished and socially disadvantaged groups.

e) drug abuse is unrelated to perceptions of discrimination.

25. Which of the following models explains abnormal behavior in terms of the complex interaction of multiple factors?

a) Behavioral

b) Sociocultural

c) Psychodynamic

d) Biopsychosocial

e) Humanistic

26. The diathesis-stress model is an example of which kind of model of abnormal behavior?

a) Humanistic

b) Cognitive

c) Psychodynamic

d) Sociocultural

e) Biopsychosocial

27. A diathesis is a

a) severely traumatic incident.

b) gene linked to a psychological disorder.

c) predisposition or vulnerability to a disorder.

d) learned pattern of abnormal behavior.

e) disturbance of mood, perception, or behavior.

28. In the diathesis-stress model, whether someone with a diathesis develops the disorder is determined by

a) genetic factors.

b) biological factors.

c) learning experiences.

d) stressful experiences.

e) personality traits.

29. What, if any, is the general relationship between diathesis and stress?

a) The stronger the diathesis, the less stress needed to produce the disorder.

b) The weaker the diathesis, the less stress needed to produce the disorder.

c) The stronger the diathesis, the more stress needed to produce the disorder.

d) Stress and diathesis are unrelated.

e) Stressful conditions are necessary for any diathesis to result in a disorder.

30. Distinctive patterns of abnormal behavior are described within the medical model as

a) psychological disorders.

b) biological disorders.

c) mental disorders or mental illnesses.

d) clinical insanity.

e) aberrant manifestations.

31. Approximately what percentage of American adults have a diagnosable psychological disorder at some point in their lives?

a) 5 percent

b) 15 percent

c) 30 percent

d) 45 percent

e) 65 percent

32. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual uses which term to describe abnormal patterns of behavior?

a) Mental illness

b) Mental disorder

c) Psychological disorder

d) Psychological illness

e) Personality disorder

33. In the DSM-IV-TR, diagnostic classifications are provided in

a) Axis I and Axis II.

b) Axis II and Axis III.

c) Axis III and Axis IV.

d) Axis IV and Axis V.

e) Axis II only.

34. The diagnostic classifications in the DSM-IV-TR represent

a) mental disorders.

b) physical conditions.

c) medical conditions.

d) psychosocial and environmental problems.

e) global assessment of functioning.

35. Axis III of the DSM-IV-TR includes

a) major classes of disorders.

b) minor classes of disorders.

c) global assessment of psychosocial functioning.

d) general medical conditions and diseases.

e) psychosocial and environmental problems affecting mental health.

36. Which axis of the DSM-IV-TR addresses global assessment of functioning?

a) Axis II

b) Axis III

c) Axis IV

d) Axis V

e) Axis I

37. One criticism of the DSM is that it is too heavily focused on the

a) psychological model.

b) sociocultural model.

c) medical model.

d) cognitive model.

e) biopsychosocial model.

38. Comorbidity refers to the presence of

a) the same disorder in a husband and wife, or other cohabiters.

b) a mental condition and a physical condition in the same person.

c) a mental disorder in a person who has a terminal illness

d) two or more mental disorders in a person at the same time.

e) severe depression with suicidal tendencies.

39. Lily is a schizophrenic with lupus. Her schizophrenia would be listed under Axis ________ of the DSM-IV-TR, whereas the lupus would be listed under Axis ________.

a) I; II

b) II; I

c) I; III

d) II; III

e) III; I

40. Which of the following would be listed under Axis IV of the DSM?

a) The fact that the patient has a borderline personality disorder

b) The fact that the patient has AIDS

c) The fact that the patient is mentally retarded

d) The fact that the patient is homeless

e) The fact that the patient is bulimic

42. Which of the following statements is true about anxiety disorders?

a) In earlier diagnostic manuals, anxiety disorders were referred to as hysterical illnesses.

b) There are three major types of anxiety disorders.

c) Anxiety disorders are relatively rare psychological disorders.

d) Genetics does not appear to play a role in anxiety disorders.

e) Anxiety disorders are characterized by excessive or inappropriate anxiety reactions.

43. Which of the following people has a social phobia?

a) Joe, who is afraid of spiders

b) Pat, who is afraid of heights

c) Nicole, who is afraid of giving public speeches

d) Michael, who is afraid of people in uniforms

e) Meghan, who is afraid of flying in airplanes

44. A phobia is a(n)

a) sudden episode of sheer terror with no apparent cause.

b) persistent anxiety that has no specific focus.

c) nagging, intrusive thought.

d) irrational or excessive fear of something.

e) loss of a physical function that defies explanation.

45. Ella finds herself extremely frightened whenever she sees a snake. This is probably a form of

a) panic disorder.

b) specific phobia.

c) agoraphobia.

d) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

e) social phobia.

46. The irrational or excessive fear of enclosed spaces is called

a) acrophobia.

b) social phobia.

c) claustrophobia.

d) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

e) agoraphobia.

47. Pablo has an intense fear of giving oral presentations in class. He also is very fearful of dating. He is probably suffering from

a) agoraphobia.

b) specific phobia.

c) social phobia.

d) generalized anxiety disorder.

e) claustrophobia.

48. Fear of heights is to ________ as fear of enclosed spaces is to ________.

a) claustrophobia; acrophobia

b) acrophobia; claustrophobia

c) hydrophobia; claustrophobia

d) agoraphobia; acrophobia

e) acrophobia; agoraphobia

49. The DSM system recognizes three types of phobic disorders: social phobia, specific phobia, and

a) acrophobia.

b) claustrophobia.

c) phobophobia.

d) agoraphobia.

e) arachnophobia.

50. Angelique has not left her house for two years. She is completely terrified of going out. She is probably suffering from

a) agoraphobia.

b) social phobia.

c) specific phobia.

d) panic disorder.

e) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

51. The word agoraphobia comes from the Greek for

a) "fear of the outside."

b) "fear of the marketplace."

c) "fear of the public."

d) "fear of the street."

e) "fear of the unfamiliar."

52. Which of the following statements is true about panic disorder?

a) Panic attacks rarely last more than a few minutes.

b) Panic disorder is characterized by mild physical symptoms.

c) People with the disorder are usually aware that their symptoms are psychological and not physical.

d) Agoraphobia sometimes develops in people with panic disorder.

e) Panic attacks initially occur because of a specific, threatening event.

53. Tako occasionally finds himself in a state of sheer terror. The sensation lasts for several minutes, and he often believes he is having a heart attack. He may be suffering from

a) agoraphobia.

b) cardiac terror disorder.

c) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

d) panic disorder.

e) generalized anxiety disorder.

54. Persistent anxiety without a specific focus is called

a) generalized anxiety disorder.

b) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

c) agoraphobia.

d) social phobia.

e) panic disorder.

55. Because the anxiety is not tied to any particular object in generalized anxiety disorder, this type of anxiety is often described as

a) free-falling.

b) unencumbered.

c) free-floating.

d) free-wheeling.

e) unspecific.

56. Edwina is constantly worried. She cannot really identify why she feels this way. She can never relax. Edwina might be diagnosed with

a) agoraphobia.

b) generalized anxiety disorder.

c) panic disorder.

d) social phobia.

e) dissociative identity disorder.

57. Nagging, intrusive thoughts are called ________, and repetitive or ritual behaviors are called ________.

a) thought triggers; recurrences

b) compulsions; obsessions

c) obsessions; compulsions

d) diatheses; conversions

e) conversions; diatheses

58. Whenever Fritz leaves his house, he has a nagging thought that he is forgetting something. He goes back to check that he has turned off the water and stove and locked the door. Some days, it takes Fritz over an hour to actually leave the house. This sounds like a case of

a) checking phobia.

b) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

c) agoraphobia.

d) panic disorder.

e) acrophobia.

59. Which of the following people is demonstrating an obsessive-compulsive disorder?

a) Buckie, who locks and unlocks her door three times each time she enters and leaves her home

b) Scott, who has a low-level state of anxiety that seems to travel with him wherever he goes

c) Rick, who has an irrational fear of riding on escalators

d) Mary Jo, who refuses to leave her house because going out in public makes her panic

e) Nancy, who experiences sudden, unexpected episodes of sheer terror

60. Biochemical changes in the brain trigger a kind of internal alarm system that induces feelings associated with

a) generalized anxiety disorder.

b) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

c) panic disorder.

d) social phobia.

e) somatoform disorder.

61. Obsessive-compulsive disorder may be linked to irregularities in the brain regions that

a) respond to danger cues.

b) process memories.

c) control heart rate.

d) regulate decision making.

e) respond to the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.

62. Phobias develop through associations of fearful stimuli with previously neutral stimuli. This summarizes which explanation?

a) Cognitive

b) Classical conditioning

c) Operant conditioning

d) Psychodynamic

e) Sociocultural

63. The reduction of anxiety that occurs when feared objects are avoided is the basis of which explanation of phobic avoidance?

a) Neo-Freudian

b) Classical conditioning

c) Operant conditioning

d) Cognitive

e) Humanistic

64. Eight-year-old Jeanine has a morbid fear of spiders. Consequently, when her Girl Scout troop leader announces a camping trip, Jeanine becomes very anxious. On the day of the trip, she fakes a stomachache and stays home. Her anxiety is then temporarily relieved. Jeanine's avoidance behavior can be accounted for in terms of

a) classical conditioning.

b) observational learning.

c) operant conditioning.

d) latent learning.

e) learned helplessness.

65. Abner is an obsessive-compulsive who constantly has thoughts about his wife and kids dying in a car accident. The only thing that relieves these thoughts, for a short while, is counting backwards from 84 to 0. A behaviorist therapist would tell Abner that the cycle of repetitive thoughts and counting continues because the counting provides

a) positive reinforcement.

b) punishment.

c) a distraction.

d) negative reinforcement.

e) an avoidance mechanism.

66. The cognitive model of panic disorder focuses on misinterpretations of

a) childhood experiences.

b) social cues.

c) bodily sensations.

d) intentions of others.

e) irregular brain wave patterns.

67. Charlotte feels a knot in her stomach when she enters a hospital to visit an ailing aunt. She interprets this to mean that the hospital is a threatening place because it's filled with dangerous diseases. This leads to anxiety and worry, which in turn cause her to feel shortness of breath and a tightening of the chest muscles. Then she becomes certain that she's having a heart attack. This scenario explains panic attacks from the point of view of which theoretical model?

a) Psychodynamic

b) Behavioral

c) Cognitive

d) Humanistic

e) Biopsychosocial

69. The members of a class of psychological disorders involving changes in consciousness, memory, or self-identity are known as

a) personality disorders.

b) phobias.

c) somatoform disorders.

d) mood disorders.

e) dissociative disorders.

70. Dissociative identity disorder is a more technical term for

a) multiple personality disorder.

b) neurosis.

c) schizophrenia.

d) generalized anxiety disorder.

e) hysteria.

71. Which of the following statements regarding dissociative disorders is FALSE?

a) Dissociative disorders can involve amnesia.

b) Dissociative disorder includes cases of people with "multiple personalities."

c) Dissociative disorders are among the most puzzling of psychological disorders.

d) Compared to other psychological disorders, dissociative disorders are relatively common.

e) Some mental health professionals question the existence of dissociative identity disorder.

72. Eleanor is a quiet 41-year-old housewife. Occasionally, she seems to "become" a 14-year-old male juvenile delinquent. At other times, she "becomes" a 52-year-old, foul-mouthed alcoholic. This sounds like a textbook case of

a) schizophrenia.

b) manic-depressive disorder.

c) dissociative identity disorder.

d) conversion disorder.

e) bipolar disorder.

73. The existence of two or more distinct personalities within the same individual leads to a diagnosis of

a) conversion disorder.

b) dissociative amnesia.

c) agoraphobia.

d) schizophrenia.

e) dissociative identity disorder.

74. One gender difference in those with dissociative identity disorder is that males tend to have an average of ________ personalities, whereas women tend to have ________.

a) three; six or more

b) six; three or four

c) five; eight

d) eight; fifteen or more

e) ten; between three and six

75. Dissociative amnesia is

a) a loss of memory due to head trauma.

b) another term for dissociative identity disorder.

c) another term for multiple personality disorder.

d) a loss of memory with no identifiable physical cause.

e) a loss of memory due to a neurological condition.

76. Most forms of dissociative amnesia differ from generalized amnesia in that they

a) are much less common.

b) have a physical cause.

c) involve a loss of memory limited to a specific event.

d) affect accumulated knowledge, whereas generalized amnesia affects only memory of personal experiences.

e) are irreversible.

77. Although they have different symptoms and characteristics, dissociative disorders and somatoform disorders are often grouped together because they both involve ________ defenses against ________.

a) physical; anxiety

b) physical; depression

c) psychological; mania

d) psychological; depression

e) psychological; anxiety

78. A person walks into a police station. She has no identification and reports that she was walking down the street with no sense of who she is or how she got there. She is referred to a neurologist who finds no physical explanation for her condition. This sounds like a case of

a) dissociative amnesia.

b) dissociative identity disorder.

c) multiple personality disorder.

d) anterograde amnesia.

e) bipolar disorder.

79. The basic explanation of dissociative identity disorder is that

a) there is a genetic factor involved.

b) it is a brain abnormality involving a lesion in the prefrontal cortex.

c) it represents a coping response to severe trauma.

d) it is an extreme form of Freudian conflict.

e) those afflicted are faking their alternative selves.

80. Critics of the concept of dissociative identity disorder suggest that

a) it is really a form a schizophrenia.

b) it represents a form of attention-seeking role playing.

c) there are underlying physical causes that are unidentified.

d) it was created by psychotherapists looking for publicity.

e) it is not a mental disorder but simply an overactive imagination.

81. Physical complaints that cannot be explained medically are characteristic of

a) dissociative identity disorder.

b) culture-free syndromes.

c) somatoform disorders.

d) dissociative amnesia.

e) dysthymic disorder.

82. A loss of physical function that has no organic cause is the primary symptom of

a) hypochondriasis.

b) dissociative disorder.

c) conversion disorder.

d) somatophobia.

e) somatization disorder.

83. After getting into an automobile accident while fighting with her fiancé, Chou reports that she cannot see. Examinations indicate no apparent medical condition. Chou may be suffering from

a) dissociative disorder.

b) hypochondriasis.

c) dissociative amnesia.

d) conversion disorder.

e) dysthymic disorder.

84. Which type of psychological disorder attracted Sigmund Freud to the study of psychological factors in abnormal behavior?

a) Dissociative amnesia

b) Dissociative identity disorder

c) Hypochondriasis

d) Schizophrenia

e) Conversion disorder

85. The phrase la belle indifférence describes which feature of a psychological disorder?

a) The tendency for people with conversion disorder to be unconcerned about their symptoms

b) The tendency for people with dissociative identity disorder to have been highly imaginative as children

c) The tendency for people with depression to have a maladaptive attributional style

d) The tendency for people with bipolar disorder to swing dramatically from one end of the mood spectrum to the other

e) The tendency for people with depression to show indifference toward their future

86. Preoccupation with fears of a terrible health problem is characteristic of

a) conversion disorder.

b) hypochondriasis.

c) dissociative identity disorder.

d) dissociative amnesia.

e) hysteria.

87. Of the following people with psychological disorders, which is most likely to express features similar to those of obsessive-compulsive disorder?

a) Marie, who has hypochondriasis

b) Robbie, who has a conversion disorder

c) Matthew, who has dissociative amnesia

d) Gloria, who has dissociative identity disorder

e) Bob, who has schizophrenia

88. Which statement best captures the cognitive explanation for somatoform disorders?

a) People with these disorders are reinforced by others for adopting a "sick role" to draw sympathy and support.

b) Conversion symptoms help the person avoid anxiety-provoking situations.

c) Conversion symptoms provide secondary gain.

d) Conversion symptoms are an outward sign of an unconscious dynamic struggle between opposing motives.

e) When it comes to symptoms, people with hypochondriasis tend to "make mountains out of molehills."

89. The idea that having a conversion symptom helps the individual escape from confronting stressful or conflict-laden situations is captured in the concept of

a) diathesis.

b) secondary gain.

c) anxiety sensitivity.

d) positive symptoms.

e) waxy flexibility.

90. Freud believed that the somatoform disorders

a) result from a struggle between opposing motives.

b) represent an attention-getting mechanism.

c) are the result of underlying medical conditions.

d) are due to genetic defects.

e) develop as a coping response to traumatic experiences.

91. Dr. Bloom, a learning theorist, is most likely to agree with Dr. Field, an orthodox Freudian, that an individual with hypochondriasis

a) is deliberately faking his symptoms.

b) is expressing an underlying struggle between opposing motives.

c) is rewarded for adopting a "sick" role.

d) receives the secondary gain of avoiding anxiety.

e) catastrophisizes minor bodily sensations into major illnesses.

conversion disorder, the individual loses some aspect of physical function, experiencing, for example, paralysis 93. What percentage of the U.S. population is expected to develop major depression at some point in their lives?

a) 2.5 percent

b) 4 percent

c) 8.5 percent

d) 12 percent

e) 16.5 percent

94. Which of the following is true regarding gender differences in major depressive disorder?

a) Men are more likely than women to be diagnosed.

b) Men and women are equally likely to be diagnosed.

c) Women are more likely than men to be diagnosed.

d) Young women are more likely than young men to be diagnosed, and the pattern reverses in middle age.

e) Young men are more likely than young women to be diagnosed, and the pattern reverses in middle age.

95. When Nancy wasn't accepted into the graduate program of her choice, she risked depression by cognitively coping with the problem the way women typically do; in other words, she

a) distracted herself by going shopping.

b) kept thinking about it.

c) considered other options.

d) minimized the setback.

e) repressed it.

96. Bonnie has been feeling extremely sad for the last month. She has difficulty getting out of bed to face the day and has lost interest in formerly pleasurable activities. Occasionally, she thinks about committing suicide. She sounds like she may be suffering from

a) mania.

b) antisocial personality disorder.

c) dysthymic disorder.

d) major depressive disorder.

e) seasonal affective disorder.

97. Which of the following statements is true about gender and depression?

a) Rumination by women is associated with depression, whereas rumination by men does not appear to have adverse effects.

b) Gender differences in depression appear to exist only in the United States.

c) Women are just as likely as men to develop major depression.

d) When things go wrong, men are more likely than women to cope by using distraction.

e) Gender differences in depression begin to emerge in middle age.

98. Major depression that occurs repeatedly during fall and winter, followed by elevated mood in spring and summer, is called

a) major depressive disorder.

b) cyclothymic disorder.

c) dysthymic disorder.

d) seasonal affective disorder.

e) winter dysthymia.

99. Trina suffers from seasonal affective disorder. Her therapist is likely to choose which type of treatment?

a) Electroconvulsive therapy

b) Long-term psychotherapy

c) Antidepressant drugs

d) Ski vacations during the winter

e) Exposure to bright artificial light during the fall and winter

100. Joyce experiences prolonged periods (several years) of mild sadness. Joyce's disorder would best be described as

a) major depressive disorder.

b) dysthymic disorder.

c) cyclothymic disorder.

d) bipolar disorder.

e) schizophrenia.

101. Which of the following statements regarding dysthymic disorder is true?

a) Episodes of dysthymic disorder are typically shorter than those of major depression.

b) About 16 percent of the population develops dysthymic disorder.

c) Unlike major depression, dysthymic disorder is more common in men than in women.

d) The symptoms of dysthymia are more severe than those of major depression.

e) People with dysthymic disorder could be described as consistently "down in the dumps."

102. Of the mood disorders, which appear to affect women and men at about the same rate?

a) Only major depressive disorder

b) Only cyclothymic disorder

c) Only bipolar disorder

d) Both cyclothymic disorder and bipolar disorder

e) Both major depressive disorder and dysthymic disorder

103. Bipolar disorder was formerly called

a) manic-depression.

b) cyclothymic disorder.

c) dysthymic disorder.

d) dissociative disorder.

e) schizophrenia.

104. In a manic episode of bipolar disorder, a person might manifest which of the following?

a) Lack of energy

b) Slowed speech

c) Deflated sense of self-worth

d) Difficulty committing to decisions

e) Poor judgment

105. Nikita experiences periods of extreme sadness that alternate with periods of euphoric or elevated mood. Nikita may be suffering from

a) schizophrenia.

b) bipolar disorder.

c) dysthymic disorder.

d) seasonal affective disorder.

e) mood conversion disorder.

106. When Steven came in for therapy, he was in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. The therapist noted the symptom known as flight of ideas when Steven

a) slurred his words.

b) kept forgetting what he wanted to say.

c) spoke too rapidly.

d) jumped from one topic to another.

e) expressed lofty, grandiose ambitions.

107. A mood disorder characterized by milder mood swings than bipolar disorder is called

a) cyclothymic disorder.

b) dysthymic disorder.

c) manic-depression.

d) bipolar B disorder.

e) major depressive disorder.

108. Of the following mood disorders, which is LEAST prevalent in the general population?

a) Major depressive disorder

b) Bipolar disorder

c) Cyclothymic disorder

d) Dysthymic disorder

e) None. All appear at about the same rate in the general population.

109. Freudian theory contends that depression

a) is biologically based.

b) is genetically based.

c) involves anger turned inward.

d) is a strategy for getting attention.

e) results from a lack of reinforcement.

110. The behavior model suggests that depression is

a) due to unresolved unconscious conflicts.

b) the result of alterations in reinforcement levels.

c) a matter of how people interpret events.

d) genetic in origin but influenced by early trauma.

e) the result of learning depressed behaviors.

111. Which theory attributes depression to the way people interpret events?

a) Psychodynamic

b) Humanistic

c) Cognitive

d) Behavioral

e) Sociocultural

112. Which of the following statements best captures the cognitive distortion of "mistaken responsibility"?

a) "My partner is going to have an accident when she or he goes skiing."

b) "I failed my first statistics exam. I'll never get into graduate school."

c) "I have to get an A in that class."

d) "I didn't get the grade I wanted in that class; I'm so stupid."

e) "My partner is depressed because I want to break up."

113. Kim looked at her paper. She had received a grade of A-. The professor had written a long paragraph praising her thorough research, her flowing writing style, and her logical, witty reasoning. Instead of basking in the glow of those compliments, she chose to fixate on the one omission that kept her from getting a solid A. "How could I have messed up like this?" she asked herself. Kim is engaging in which cognitive distortion?

a) Misplaced blame

b) Jumping to conclusions

c) Negative focusing

d) Misfortune telling

e) Emotion-based reasoning

114. Exaggerating the importance of negative events or personal flaws is an example of which type of cognitive distortion?

a) All-or-nothing thinking

b) Misfortune telling

c) Catastrophizing

d) Dismissing the positives

e) Misplaced blame

115. Who developed cognitive therapy and identified a number of faulty thinking patterns called cognitive distortions?

a) Aaron Beck

b) Albert Ellis

c) Albert Bandura

d) Sigmund Freud

e) Martin Seligman

116. Which psychologist is associated with the study of learned helplessness?

a) Aaron Beck

b) Albert Ellis

c) Albert Bandura

d) Sigmund Freud

e) Martin Seligman

117. Ceci has a depressive attributional style. When she fails, Ceci makes which type of attribution?

a) Internal, specific, and stable

b) Internal, global, and stable

c) Internal, global, and unstable

d) External, global, and stable

e) External, specific, and unstable

118. Daniello has the distorted, pessimistic thinking that is associated with depression. Research suggests that Daniello's brain has ________ levels of ________ activity.

a) high; serotonin and dopamine

b) high; serotonin and endorphins

c) low; dopamine and endorphins

d) high; norepinephrine and dopamine

e) low; serotonin and norepinephrine

119. Depression has been linked to imbalances in which two neurotransmitters?

a) Serotonin and dopamine

b) Dopamine and norepinephrine

c) Norepinephrine and serotonin

d) Serotonin and acetylcholine

e) Epinephrine and dopamine

120. The antidepressants Prozac and Zoloft work by raising the levels of which neurotransmitter in the brain?

a) Dopamine

b) GABA

c) Serotonin

d) Norepinephrine

e) Acetylcholine

121. Which of the following statements about gender and suicide is true?

a) There are no gender differences in suicide attempts and suicide acts.

b) When attempting suicide, women tend to choose more lethal methods.

c) When attempting suicide, men are more likely than women to choose pills or poison.

d) More men attempt suicide, but more women complete the suicide act.

e) More women attempt suicide, but more men complete the suicide act.

122. Other factors being equal, which of the following people is at the LOWEST risk for committing suicide?

a) A White American male

b) A White American female

c) An African American male

d) An African American female

e) A Hispanic American male

123. Other factors being equal, which person is at the highest risk for suicide?

a) Hugh, an 80-year-old male

b) DeeDee, a 70-year-old female

c) Frank, a 60-year-old male

d) Betty, a 50-year-old female

e) Jake, an 18-year-old male

124. Which ethnic groups are more likely to commit suicide?

a) White Americans and African Americans

b) White Americans and Hispanic Americans

c) White Americans and Native Americans

d) African Americans and Hispanic Americans

e) African Americans and Native Americans

125. Which of the following beliefs about suicide is actually true?

a) People who commit suicide are usually suffering from a psychological disorder but are not insane.

b) People who threaten suicide are only trying to get attention.

c) If someone threatens suicide, it is best to ignore it so as not to encourage repeated threats.

d) Talking about suicide with a depressed person may prompt him or her to attempt suicide.

e) People who attempt suicide and fail aren't serious about killing themselves.

126. The removal of normal restraints that serve to keep impulsive behaviors in check is called

a) an exit event.

b) a cognitive distortion.

c) a negative symptom.

d) waxy flexibility.

e) the disinhibition effect.

127. Which of the following statements regarding causes of suicide is true?

a) Suicide may be linked to reduced levels of dopamine in the brain that lead to a disinhibition effect.

b) Suicide is closely linked to major depression but not to bipolar disorder.

c) Alcohol dependence has not been found to be an important risk factor in suicide.

d) Suicide is linked to exit events, such as death or divorce.

e) Adolescents who have a friend who attempted suicide are less likely to attempt suicide themselves.

129. The disorder that most resembles common notions of insanity, madness, or lunacy is

a) major depressive disorder.

b) dissociative identity disorder.

c) generalized anxiety disorder.

d) schizophrenia.

e) bipolar disorder.

130. Which of the following statements about schizophrenia is true?

a) Women tend to experience a more severe course of the disorder than do men.

b) Schizophrenia is much more common in women than in men.

c) In the United States, about 2.5 million people are diagnosed with schizophrenia.

d) Schizophrenia is much more common in industrialized countries than in undeveloped countries.

e) Women tend to develop the disorder somewhat earlier than men.

131. Approximately what percentage of schizophrenics require hospitalization?

a) 10 percent

b) 25 percent

c) 33 percent

d) 50 percent

e) 75 percent

132. Schizophrenia follows a ________ and typically develops ________.

a) chronic but not lifelong course; in middle adulthood

b) lifelong course; in early adolescence

c) chronic but not lifelong course; in late adolescence or early adulthood

d) lifelong course; in late adolescence or early adulthood

e) variable course; during the person's thirties

133. Which of the following statements is true about cross-cultural differences in schizophrenia?

a) Schizophrenia occurs somewhat more frequently in other cultures than in the United States, and its symptoms are similar across cultures.

b) Schizophrenia occurs much less frequently in other cultures than in the United States, and particular symptoms vary from culture to culture.

c) Schizophrenia occurs much more frequently in other cultures than in the United States, and particular symptoms vary from culture to culture.

d) Schizophrenia occurs about as frequently in other cultures as in the United States, and its symptoms are similar across cultures.

e) Schizophrenia occurs about as frequently in other cultures as in the United States, but particular symptoms vary from culture to culture.

134. Schizophrenia is a type of

a) anxiety disorder.

b) mood disorder.

c) personality disorder.

d) psychotic disorder.

e) dissociative disorder.

135. Hallucinations are

a) perceptions that occur without appropriate external stimuli.

b) false beliefs.

c) long strings of disconnected words.

d) patterns of agitated, purposeless motion.

e) removal of inhibitions.

136. Tatiana is a schizophrenic patient with delusional thinking. What does Tatiana experience?

a) Perceptions that occur without appropriate external stimuli

b) False but firm beliefs

c) Violent, aggressive outbursts

d) Patterns of disorganized speech

e) Removal of inhibitions resulting in violent outbursts

137. Which of the following schizophrenic patients is manifesting the most common form of hallucinations?

a) Victor, who says he sees a thousand spotted lizards climbing all over the walls

b) Marcy, who says she smells bread baking in the oven, when there is no such smell

c) Alex, who says he hears a voice telling him to break into a bank, steal the money, and give it to the poor

d) Barney, who says he feels raindrops falling on his skin, even though he's indoors and there are no leaks in the ceiling

e) Fiona, who says that her head has become detached from her neck and is floating upward

138. Herman manifested a negative symptom of schizophrenia when he

a) was asked his name and answered, "Name, same, game, shame, blame, fame."

b) lapsed into silence and refused to acknowledge anyone who attempted to engage him.

c) said that he was the president of the United States and needed to board Air Force 1 immediately.

d) stood on a chair with a spoon in his hand and screamed obscenities at everyone around him.

e) said there were little purple people with antennas on their heads making a buzzing noise in his ear.

139. Among schizophrenics, the most common delusions are of

a) jealousy.

b) reference.

c) la belle indifférence.

d) grandeur.

e) persecution.

140. The fact that the prefrontal cortex appears to be affected in schizophrenia is not surprising in light of the fact that its major functions are to

a) form memories and process emotional experiences.

b) regulate states of attention, alertness, and arousal and screen visual and auditory information.

c) relay sensory information to the cerebral cortex and regulate states of sleep and wakefulness.

d) keep information in mind, organize thoughts and behavior, and formulate and carry out plans.

e) regulate hunger and thirst, fluid concentrations, body temperature, and reproductive processes.

141. A breakdown in the logical structure of thinking and speech, revealed in the form of a loosening of associations, is characteristic of which psychological disorder?

a) Antisocial personality disorder

b) Major depressive disorder

c) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

d) Dissociative identity disorder

e) Schizophrenia

142. Which of the following is a major type of schizophrenia?

a) Delusional

b) Depressive

c) Profound

d) Paranoid

e) Dissociative

143. Raoul demonstrates confused behavior. He frequently speaks incoherently and reports vivid hallucinations. His emotions are often inappropriate, and he neglects personal hygiene. Raoul is probably suffering from which type of schizophrenia?

a) Catatonic

b) Profound

c) Disorganized

d) Paranoid

e) Delusional

144. Waxy flexibility is a feature of which type of schizophrenia?

a) Delirious

b) Disorganized

c) Catatonic

d) Paranoid

e) Depressive

145. Chaka suffers frequent delusional thoughts. He also experiences frequent auditory hallucinations. This is typical of which type of schizophrenia?

a) Psychotic

b) Paranoid

c) Catatonic

d) Disorganized

e) Delirious

146. The most common type of schizophrenia is ________, and the rarest type is ________.

a) catatonic; paranoid

b) disorganized; catatonic

c) paranoid; catatonic

d) disorganized; paranoid

e) paranoid; disorganized

147. Which of the following schizophrenics is having a delusion of persecution?

a) Ricky, who says, "The news anchor on that television show just told me a secret. No one else knows."

b) Lisa, who says, "I have to wear a garlic belt around my waist because Dracula is after me."

c) Kevin, who says, "My name is Clark Kent. If you open this window, I'll show you that I can fly."

d) Chester, who says, "I'm late. The board meeting at my company, Microsoft, was scheduled to start three minutes ago."

e) Annabel, who says, "I am Queen Victoria. Are you one of my subjects?"

148. Genetic studies demonstrate that the concordance rate for schizophrenia is

a) highest among parents and children.

b) highest among monozygotic twins.

c) highest among dizygotic twins.

d) highest amo