PSYC Psychology Chapter 12 answers complete solutions for any quiz and exam

PSYC Psychology Chapter 12 answers complete solutions for any quiz and exam

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1. Psychologist Dr. James is researching the effect of clinical depression on the body's immune system. What is Dr. James's specialty?

a) Clinical psychology

b) Health psychology

c) Psychiatry

d) Applied psychology

e) Environmental psychology

2. Health psychology is the study of the interrelationships between

a) drugs and health.

b) physical health and mental illness.

c) mental illness and drugs.

d) psychological factors and physical health.

e) psychological factors and mental health.

3. Dr. Judah Levine is a health psychologist. Thus he might do which of the following?

a) Work in a school serving emotionally disturbed students

b) Research the effects of air pollution on people's lungs

c) Consult with a corporation about which desk chairs would be least likely to cause backaches

d) Help a mayor design a campaign to reduce teen smoking in his city

e) Treat patients with psychological disorders, such as schizophrenia

4. Pressures or demands placed on an organism are termed

a) stress.

b) distress.

c) anxiety.

d) disease.

e) hassles.

5. Which of the following definitions best describes distress?

a) A state of tension brought about by opposing motives operating simultaneously

b) A state of emotional or physical suffering, discomfort, or pain

c) Continuing or lingering sources of stress

d) Pressure or demand placed on an organism to adjust or adapt

e) Annoyances of daily life that impose a stressful burden

6. According to recent APA surveys, what portion of Americans say they are facing extreme levels of stress in their lives?

a) One-tenth

b) One-fifth

c) One-fourth

d) One-third

e) One-half

7. Chan experiences distress. Which psychological disorders is Chan most prone to develop?

a) Anxiety and schizophrenia

b) Schizophrenia and personality disorder

c) Personality disorder and depression

d) Depression and anxiety

e) Bipolar disorder and paranoia

8. When surveyed by the APA regarding their reactions to stress in the past month, most respondents reported the physical symptom of ________ and the psychological symptom of ________.

a) change in sex drive; irritability or anger

b) teeth grinding; feeling as if they could cry

c) fatigue; irritability or anger

d) change in appetite; feeling nervous or sad

e) change in sex drive; lack of interest, motivation, or energy

9. Sources of stress are called

a) pressures.

b) distressors.

c) anxieties.

d) hassles.

e) stressors.

10. John was late for work after being caught in a traffic jam. Then he got caught in the rain walking from the parking garage to his office. In terms of stress, John's experiences are best described as

a) life events.

b) traumas.

c) hassles.

d) anxieties.

e) distresses.

11. Five students were late for Professor Brown's Psychology 101 class. Which one was late because of a hassle?

a) Amber, who was having one of her migraine headaches and, after taking a pill, had to wait for the pain to subside

b) Drew, who overslept because his old alarm clock stopped working that morning

c) Ernest, who had to have a long phone conversation with his girlfriend, who was scared because she missed her period

d) Francis, who had maxed out his credit cards and had no money to fill up the car, so had to beg a ride to school from a friend

e) Gina, who had gotten engaged the night before and was unable that morning to concentrate on anything but wedding plans

12. There are five receptionists working in the Dr. Feld's office. Which one appears to suffer from chronic stress?

a) Jeanne, who is in remission after breast cancer and who is determined to enjoy every minute of her life

b) Alma, who never sleeps more than 3 or 4 hours per night and doesn't seem the worse for it

c) Carmen, whose son has autism and who always appears exhausted at work

d) Lynn, who was a difficult baby and grew up to be an irritable, angry adult

e) Melanie, who seems to change boyfriends as often as she changes outfits

13. Which life event will garner a college student the most points on the College Life Stress Inventory?

a) Death of a close friend

b) Death of a family member

c) Concerns about being pregnant

d) Flunking a class

e) Being raped

14. Five college pals were talking about what had happened to them during the day. According to the College Life Stress Inventory, which one experienced the most stressful event?

a) Don, who said, "I had a call from my parents telling me I should think about coming home on spring break and earning some money instead of going away."

b) Tal, who said, "I got a call from the clinic telling me I tested positive for viral hepatitis."

c) Matt, who said, "I had an argument with my roommate about the noise he makes in the morning when I'm trying to sleep."

d) Ray, who said, "I fell asleep in psychology class."

e) Walt, who said, "I had to stand up in front of the whole class and read my paper out loud."

15. Major changes in life circumstances are called

a) hassles.

b) microstressors.

c) stressors.

d) life events.

e) conflicts

16. What is true about life events?

a) They are always negative.

b) They occur regularly.

c) They are minor changes in life circumstances.

d) They can occur unexpectedly.

e) They don't always require adjustments.

17. Sela experienced a life event when she

a) was nervous and felt a knot in her stomach for a whole week before her wedding.

b) misplaced the copy of the poem she was planning on reading at the ceremony.

c) broke the heel of her new shoe on her wedding day and had to wear an old pair that didn't really match the wedding dress.

d) argued with an aunt who did not like being assigned a seat at a table near the band.

e) got married.

18. Which of the following people is experiencing stress because of frustration?

a) Andor, who wants to attend Harvard but does not have the grades or money to achieve his goal, so he unhappily attends a local college instead

b) Nanette, who gets married, has a baby, and buys a new house all within the same year

c) Marcus, who is experiencing PTSD after serving in the military in Iraq for a year

d) Katie, who wants to ask her colleague Mark for a date but fears that he will turn her down and tell their co-workers

e) Aubrey, who punctured a tire on his boss's car after the boss criticized his work

19. Which of the following definitions best describes frustration?

a) A state of tension resulting from the presence of multiple competing goals

b) A negative emotional state that results when efforts to pursue a goal are blocked

c) Pressure or demands placed on an organism

d) An internal state of psychological or physical pain

e) The accumulation of multiple daily hassles

20. Eduardo is stressed because he aspires to join the full-time faculty at a local university, but the university will hire him only as a temporary instructor since he lacks a Ph.D. In Eduardo's case, the source of stress is

a) conflict.

b) a hassle.

c) distress.

d) frustration.

e) anxiety.

21. Shandra experiences tension because she has two competing goals that must both be resolved. The term used by psychologists to describe Shandra's source of stress is

a) conflict.

b) frustration.

c) aggression.

d) anxiety.

e) distress.

22. Pauline would like to be a full-time college student. However, she also would like to work full-time. She is a single mother and would prefer not to leave her child in day care all day. The state of tension that she feels is most accurately labeled

a) frustration.

b) aggression.

c) conflict.

d) neurosis.

e) acculturative stress.

23. Which type of conflict is generally considered the LEAST stressful?

a) Approach-avoidance

b) Avoidance-avoidance

c) Approach-approach

d) Multiple approach-avoidance

e) Multiple approach-approach

24. Which type of conflict is most likely to cause feelings of ambivalence?

a) Approach-approach

b) Frustration

c) Avoidance-avoidance

d) Distress

e) Approach-avoidance

25. Emilio arrives at the movie theater planning to see a new thriller. When he gets there, he is surprised to discover that a new comedy that he has wanted to see is also playing. He may be experiencing what type of conflict?

a) Approach-avoidance

b) Avoidance-avoidance

c) Approach-approach

d) Multiple approach-avoidance

e) Multiple approach-approach

26. Karen's parents gave her two choices: either stay home and babysit with her younger sister or let her sister come along when Karen and her girlfriends go to the movie. Karen didn't want to do either. What type of conflict is she facing?

a) Approach-approach

b) Approach-avoidance

c) Avoidance-avoidance

d) Multiple avoidance-avoidance

e) Multiple approach-avoidance

27. An approach-avoidance conflict occurs when someone faces

a) a goal that is simultaneously attractive and unpleasant.

b) a goal with multiple unpleasant qualities.

c) two equally attractive goals that are mutually exclusive.

d) two equally unpleasant goals.

e) two or more goals, each of which is simultaneously attractive and unpleasant.

28. A multiple approach-avoidance conflict occurs when someone faces

a) a goal that is simultaneously attractive and unpleasant.

b) two equally attractive goals that are mutually exclusive.

c) two equally unpleasant goals.

d) two or more goals, each of which is simultaneously attractive and unpleasant.

e) two goals, one that is attractive and one that is unpleasant.

29. Henri has the opportunity to go to a party. His best friend from high school, whom Henri has not seen for five years, will be there. However, Henri's former girlfriend will also be there. They had a big fight recently, and Henri still gets upset when he sees her. He is facing what sort of conflict?

a) Approach-avoidance

b) Avoidance-avoidance

c) Approach-approach

d) Multiple approach-avoidance

e) Multiple approach-approach

30. Matilda is at a reception. The dinner choices are chicken and beef, her two favorite entrees. However, chicken sometimes upsets her stomach, and the beef has a lot of saturated fat, which Matilda is trying to avoid for health reasons. She is facing what sort of conflict?

a) Approach-avoidance

b) Avoidance-avoidance

c) Approach-approach

d) Frustration

e) Multiple approach-avoidance

31. A psychological disorder characterized by maladaptive reactions to life-threatening events or stressors is

a) posttraumatic stress disorder.

b) generalized anxiety disorder.

c) antisocial personality disorder.

d) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

e) phobic disorder.

32. Which of the following statements is true about posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

a) PTSD is seen only in Western cultures.

b) PTSD is quite rare among trauma survivors.

c) PTSD is usually seen only in combat veterans.

d) PTSD is ordinarily a short-term condition.

e) PTSD can involve a re-experiencing of the traumatic event in flashbacks.

33. All of the following are symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder EXCEPT

a) reduced arousal.

b) emotional numbing.

c) impaired functioning.

d) re-experiencing the traumatic event.

e) avoidance of cues associated with the traumatic event.

34. Keisha suffers from posttraumatic stress disorder. Her primary symptoms are inability to relax and difficulty falling asleep. Keisha's symptoms are an example of which aspect of PTSD?

a) Emotional numbing

b) Avoidance of cues associated with the trauma

c) Impaired functioning

d) Reliving the traumatic event

e) Heightened arousal

Hurricane Katrina in 2005?

a) 5 percent

b) 10 percent

c) 20 percent

d) 30 percent

e) 50 percent

36. All of the following are warning signs of trauma-related stress EXCEPT

a) recurring thoughts or nightmares of the event.

b) committing too easily to decisions.

c) trouble sleeping or changes in appetite.

d) feeling emotionally numb.

e) spontaneous crying.

37. At the company picnic, you could easily tell which employee exhibits a Type A behavior pattern; she was the one who

a) was teaching some of the younger children how to throw and catch a frisbee.

b) was lying in the hammock reading a thick romance novel.

c) made sure that everyone had a place to sit, some of every food, and a cold drink.

d) insisted that the potato sack race be repeated because her partner didn't hear the word "go."

e) stood around and did nothing except watch everyone else unloading supplies and setting things up.

38. One way to describe a person with a Type B behavior pattern is to say that he is

a) "fast-paced."

b) "hostile."

c) "intense."

d) "laid back."

e) "all wound up."

39. Compared to people with a Type B behavior pattern, people with a Type A behavior pattern may have a higher risk of

a) depression.

b) generalized anxiety disorder.

c) diabetes.

d) coronary heart disease.

e) bipolar personality disorder.

40. The key element in a Type A behavior pattern that appears to account for the increased risk of coronary heart disease is

a) hostility.

b) impatience.

c) competitiveness.

d) aggression.

e) ambition.

41. Kendra takes the test of Type A personality in your text. Responding "yes" to which statement will increase her score on "Type A"?

a) "I am patient with people who are late for appointments with me."

b) "I tend to interrupt other people when they are talking."

c) "I tend to direct conversation to things that interest other people."

d) "I ignore work when I go on vacation."

e) "When I play a game, I focus on the fun of the experience."

42. A recent study of Mexican Americans linked frequent positive emotions with

a) physiological reactivity to stress.

b) irregular heart rhythms.

c) normal levels of blood pressure.

d) high blood sugar.

e) lower rates of cancer.

43. Molly goes to live in Italy for three years. Molly feels a lot of pressure to adapt to the values, linguistic preferences, and customs of the Italian people. Molly is at risk of experiencing

a) immigration stress.

b) acculturative stress.

c) Type A behavior.

d) relocation stress.

e) posttraumatic stress disorder.

44. Why is acculturation described as a double-edged sword?

a) Because some immigrants do well when they adapt to the host culture, whereas others do not

b) Because immigrants are ambivalent about whether to adopt to their new culture or to maintain the old one

c) Because adapting to the dominant culture helps immigrants economically but may hurt them psychologically

d) Because the process is stressful in itself ,and it also leads to the erosion of traditional values, which increases vulnerability to stress

e) Because adapting to a new culture is stressful not only for the immigrant generation but also for their children

45. Which of the following statements is true about acculturation?

a) Acculturation leads to a strengthening of family networks.

b) Bicultural theory suggests that immigrants fare worse when they maintain their cultural identity while simultaneously making efforts to adapt to their host culture.

c) Lack of acculturation is often associated with a higher socioeconomic status.

d) Bolstering children's sense of pride and value in their culture helps them to cope with the effects of racism.

e) Withdrawal from one's ethnic culture can ease the way for the individual to function in the majority culture.

46. What is bicultural theory concerned with?

a) Explaining how people from individualistic versus collectivistic cultures deal with stress

b) Examining the relationship between immigrants' psychological health and ethnic identity

c) Describing differences in the body's response to stress in different ethnic and minority groups

d) Exploring the role of racism and prejudice in ethnic minorities' experience of stress

e) Positing a different order of stages of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) for people from collectivistic cultures

47. The third stage of response to a stressor is

a) exhaustion.

b) alarm.

c) warning.

d) fatigue.

e) resistance.

48. The fight-or-flight response occurs during which stage of the general adaptation symdrome (GAS)?

a) Resistance

b) Alarm

c) Exhaustion

d) Alert

e) Adaptation

49. Which of the following is the correct order of stages in the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?

a) Resistance, alarm, exhaustion

b) Alarm, exhaustion, resistance

c) Exhaustion, alarm, resistance

d) Resistance, exhaustion, alarm

e) Alarm, resistance, exhaustion

50. Another name for the resistance stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is

a) adaptation.

b) alarm stage.

c) mobilization.

d) exhaustion.

e) stabilization.

51. Which researcher is nicknamed "Dr. Stress"?

a) Suzanne Kobasa

b) Martin Seligman

c) Stanley Milgram

d) Phillip Zimbardo

e) Hans Selye

52. Harriet is the victim of a recent mugging. Right now, her body is attempting to return to a normal biological state. Arousal is somewhat high, and Harriet exhibits anger and fatigue. In which stage of the GAS is Harriet?

a) Exhaustion

b) Mobilization

c) Resistance

d) Recovery

e) Alarm

53. Regarding the general adaptation syndrome, which of the following statements is true?

a) The body's response in the alarm stage varies depending on whether the perceived threat is physical or psychological.

b) The body attempts to adapt and restore energy during the alarm stage.

c) The body's response in the resistance stage is called the fight-or-flight response.

d) Diseases of adaptation occur during the resistance stage.

e) The alarm stage responses are prewired into the human nervous system.

54. Which of the following statements regarding men and women's responses to stress is true?

a) Under stress, both women and men tend to be more nurturing than aggressive.

b) Under stress, men tend to be more nurturing than aggressive and women tend to be more aggressive than nurturing.

c) Under stress, women tend to be more nurturing than aggressive and men tend to be more aggressive than nurturing.

d) Under stress, both women and men tend to be more aggressive than nurturing.

e) There are no gender differences in response to stress.

55. "Tend and befriend" best describes the pattern typically followed by which of the following in times of stress?

a) African Americans

b) Latino Americans

c) Native Americans

d) Women

e) Children

56. Which part of the brain coordinates the endocrine system's response to stress?

a) The pineal gland

b) The hypothalamus

c) The medulla

d) The pituitary gland

e) The hippocampus

57. In the stress response, ________ is to corticotrophin-releasing hormone as ________ is to adrenocorticotrophic hormone.

a) pituitary gland; hypothalamus

b) adrenal gland; hypothalamus

c) adrenal gland; pituitary gland

d) hypothalamus; adrenal gland

e) hypothalamus; pituitary gland

58. During a stress response, the adrenal cortex secretes

a) corticotrophin-releasing hormone.

b) adrenocorticotrophic hormone.

c) corticosteroids.

d) norepinephrine.

e) insulin.

59. Benita was just in a car accident. Although her physical injuries are minor, her body mobilized for the stress response. Benita's adrenal glands have just released hormones known as the stress hormones. What are these hormones?

a) Corticotrophin-releasing hormones (CRH)

b) Androgens

c) Adrenocorticotrophic hormones (ACTH)

d) Insulin and melatonin

e) Epinephrine and norepinephrine

60. Corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) targets the ________, whereas adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) targets the ________.

a) hypothalamus; pituitary gland

b) pituitary gland; adrenal glands

c) adrenal cortex; adrenal medulla

d) adrenal medulla; adrenal cortex

e) pituitary gland; hypothalamus

61. During the stress response, heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are increased by

a) corticosteroids.

b) corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH).

c) adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH).

d) epinephrine and norepinephrine.

e) immunoglobulin A.

62. The specialized white blood cells that protect the body against disease-causing organisms are called

a) antigens.

b) lymphocytes.

c) antibodies.

d) nucleotides.

e) corticosteriods.

63. All of the following are antigens EXCEPT

a) foreign proteins.

b) viruses.

c) hormones.

d) bacteria.

e) cancerous body cells.

64. Antibodies, which are produced by the immune system, are

a) specialized white blood cells.

b) specialized red blood cells.

c) specialized protein molecules.

d) foreign agents in the body.

e) hormones that help fight stress.

65. Which of the following statements about stress and the immune system is FALSE?

a) Antibodies lock on to antigens and mark them for destruction by killer lymphocytes.

b) Continued secretion of corticosteriods dampens the functioning of immune-system cells.

c) Psychological techniques, such as journaling, can help improve immunological functioning.

d) The only way to acquire immunity to antigens is through immunization or vaccination.

e) Chronic stress can increase the length of time it takes for wounds to heal.

66. College student Penelope notices that she is more susceptible to catching a cold during final exams. Penelope's increased susceptibility is probably due to the fact that during these times, her body has a lower production of

a) antigens.

b) immunoglobulin A.

c) corticotrophin-releasing hormone.

d) adrenocorticotrophic hormone.

e) interleukin-6.

67. Stress and physical illness are linked through the actions of

a) insulin.

b) corticotrophin-releasing hormones.

c) cortisol and other stress hormones.

d) antigens.

e) lymphocytes.

68. One way that chronic stress affects the immune system is by increasing levels of

a) interleukin-6.

b) immunization factor B.

c) lymphocytes.

d) immunoglobulin A.

e) neurotransmitters.

69. What is the role of social support in coping with stress?

a) Social support is irrelevant to coping with stress.

b) The role of social support in coping with stress has not been studied.

c) Social support has positive effects for women but negative effects for men coping with stress.

d) Social support has positive effects on psychological aspects of stress but not on physical aspects.

e) Social support has primarily positive effects for those coping with stress.

70. Which of the following best describes self-efficacy?

a) How much we like ourselves

b) Our ideal image of ourselves

c) Our belief that we can accomplish what we attempt

d) Our assessment of our general abilities

e) Our ability to get things done with little effort

71. Other factors being equal, which of the following people is most likely to suffer from the effects of stress?

a) Claire, who has a low level of self-efficacy

b) David, who has a strong social support network

c) Ruth, who experiences stress that is predictable

d) Vanessa, who experiences stress that is controllable

e) Nate, whose personality is described as "hardy"

72. Compared to people with low self-efficacy, people with high self-efficacy

a) are able to ignore stress.

b) are more susceptible to stress-related psychological illness.

c) have an increased ability to withstand stress.

d) are more vulnerable to stress-related physical illness.

e) have fewer stressors in their lives.

73. Which stressors tend to have the greatest impact?

a) Stressors that are predictable and uncontrollable

b) Stressors that are unpredictable and uncontrollable

c) Stressors that are predictable and controllable

d) Stressors that are unpredictable and ambiguous

e) Stressors that are unpredictable and controllable

74. The three key traits identified by Suzanne Kobasa as being associated with psychological hardiness are internal locus of control, openness to challenge, and

a) Type A personality.

b) optimism.

c) self-efficacy.

d) commitment.

e) Type B personality.

75. Michael has an internal locus of control, so he believes that

a) he must control everything.

b) his rewards are a direct consequence of his actions.

c) his outcomes are controlled by fate.

d) he can accomplish whatever he attempts.

e) his reinforcements are unpredictable and uncontrollable.

76. Which of the following statements is true about psychological hardiness?

a) Those with psychological hardiness have an external locus of control.

b) Psychological hardiness is characterized by a narrow focus.

c) People with psychological hardiness tend to have a Type A personality.

d) Psychological hardiness is associated with fewer physical symptoms and less depression during times of stress.

e) In order to buffer against stress, people with psychological hardiness try to avoid change.

77. All of the following serve as buffers against stress EXCEPT

a) self-efficacy.

b) social support.

c) hardiness.

d) optimism.

e) an external locus of control.

78. Psychological hardiness is a

a) cluster of personality traits associated with increased resilience to stress.

b) cluster of personality traits associated with reduced resilience to stress.

c) personality style characterized by hostility and impatience.

d) personality style susceptible to coronary heart disease.

e) belief that one is capable of achieving one's goals.

79. Answering "strongly agree" to which of the following statements will increase your score on an optimism quiz?

a) "If something can go wrong for me, it will."

b) "I don't get upset too easily."

c) "I enjoy my friends a lot."

d) "In uncertain times, I usually expect the best."

e) "It's important for me to keep busy."

80. Paul has just failed a psychology midterm. If Paul is high in psychological hardiness, his response to the failure is likeliest to be which of the following?

a) "This probably means that I'll fail the final exam too. I'd better drop the course."

b) "Maybe I just wasn't cut out to be a psychologist. But I sure dread changing to another major."

c) "This failure is like a challenge. I'm going to work twice as hard and prove to myself that I can master this stuff."

d) "It wasn't my fault that I failed. It was just bad luck that the test was full of things that I didn't study."

e) "It's not like I'm learning anything worthwhile here anyhow. I don't care if I get occasional failures. Just as long as I get that degree."

81. Ogden is an optimist, and his brother Foster is a pessimist. Compared to Ogden, Foster is more likely to

a) have a satisfying romantic relationship.

b) be happy.

c) manifest social anxiety.

d) be less able to cope with problems.

e) live longer.

82. All of the following statements regarding research on optimism are true EXCEPT:

a) Optimistic people tend to live longer.

b) Optimism is related to lower pain levels in cancer patients.

c) Among pregnant women, optimism is linked with higher birth weights in infants.

d) People who are overly optimistic are better able to handle setbacks in life.

e) Optimism in pregnant women is linked to lower levels of postpartum depression.

84. In the United States, what are the two leading killer diseases?

a) Stroke and cancer

b) Diabetes and stroke

c) Heart disease and diabetes

d) Heart disease and cancer

e) Diabetes and heart disease

85. About how many annual deaths in the United States are the result of heart disease?

a) 5,000

b) 60,000

c) 300,000

d) 900,000

e) 2,000,000

86. Francis has a disorder in which the blood flow to his heart is insufficient for its needs. What disorder does Francis suffer from?

a) Atherosclerosis

b) Coronary heart disease

c) Myocardial infarction

d) Arteriosclerosis

e) Diabetes

87. Narrowing of arteries due to a buildup of fatty deposits is called ________, whereas hardening of the arteries is called ________.

a) coronary heart disease; myocardial infarction

b) myocardial infarction; heart attack

c) arteriosclerosis; atherosclerosis

d) atherosclerosis; arteriosclerosis

e) heart attack; coronary heart disease

88. What is the scientific term for "hardening of the arteries"?

a) Atherosclerosis

b) Coronary heart disease

c) Myocardial infarction

d) Arteriosclerosis

e) Hypertension

89. Which of the following statements is true about coronary heart disease?

a) CHD accounts for fewer deaths in women than breast cancer.

b) In a heart attack, heart tissue literally dies from overly oxygenated blood.

c) In most cases, the underlying cause of CHD is a leaky valve.

d) One cause of heart attacks is an arterial blood clot blocking the flow of blood to part of the heart.

e) Atherosclerosis is defined as "hardening of the arteries."

90. The four leading risk factors for coronary heart disease are smoking, cholesterol, hypertension, and

a) drinking alcohol.

b) Type A personality.

c) inactivity.

d) hostility.

e) diabetes.

91. The most prominent risk factor for coronary heart disease is age. At which age does the risk of CHD increase?

a) 35

b) 40

c) 45

d) 50

e) 60

92. Which of the following is true when it comes to gender differences in risk for CHD?

a) Men are at greater risk at every age.

b) Women are at greater risk at every age.

c) Men are at greater risk until age 65.

d) Woman are at greater risk until age 65.

e) Men and women are at equal risk until age 65, after which men are at a greater risk.

93. Which of the following statements is true regarding smoking and coronary heart disease?

a) White Americans have a higher risk of dying from heart disease than do Black Americans.

b) Smoking doubles the risk of heart attack.

c) More Americans smoke than do not smoke.

d) The percentage of Americans who smoke is on the rise.

e) Once a person becomes a regular smoker, the risk of premature death cannot be reversed.

94. Other factors being equal, which man is at highest risk for death from coronary heart disease?

a) Alfred, a European American

b) Ben, an African American

c) Carlos, a Hispanic American

d) Don, an Asian American

e) Ernest, a Native American

95. All of the following are reasons given to help explain the higher rates of coronary heart disease among African Americans EXCEPT:

a) They have higher rates of hypertension.

b) They are genetically predisposed to coronary heart disease.

c) They have higher rates of diabetes.

d) They receive less aggressive treatments for heart disease and heart attacks.

e) They have higher rates of obesity.

96. Persistent emotional arousal may damage the cardiovascular system as a consequence of the production of

a) insulin and corticosteroids.

b) norepinephrine and insulin.

c) epinephrine and norepinephrine.

d) corticosteroids and epinephrine.

e) norephinephrine and corticosteroids.

97. Stress hormones increase the risk of potentially dangerous clots by

a) increasing the "stickiness" of blood clotting factors.

b) lowering blood cholesterol levels.

c) relaxing the strength of heart contractions.

d) lowering the heart rate.

e) decreasing blood pressure.

98. Which stress hormone is primarily responsible for increasing the stickiness of blood clotting factors, which, in turn, heightens the risk of heart attack and stroke?

a) Melatonin

b) Serotonin

c) Epinephrine

d) Norepinephrine

e) Estrogen

99. Five friends have decided to quit smoking. Which one is going about it the correct way?

a) Abigail, who is allowing herself to smoke only in the living room while watching TV

b) Marcia, who has decided to quit by the first of the month but is not telling anyone, just in case it doesn't happen

c) Rose, who told the other four girls that she will not be able to hang out with them anymore until they quit smoking

d) Sarah, who decided to buy twenty-five packs of cigarettes all at once and to quit when she ran out.

e) Josephine, who follows each cigarette with sugar-free mints or gum to get accustomed to a cleaner taste in her mouth.

100. All of the following suggestions will be beneficial to a person who wants to quit smoking EXCEPT:

a) "Practice competing responses when tempted to smoke."

b) "Mentally rehearse the benefits of not smoking."

c) "Increase your exposure to nonsmoking environments."

d) "Limit the availability of cigarettes."

e) "Try to quit 'cold turkey.'"

101. What is the leading cause of cancer death in women?

a) Breast cancer

b) Cervical cancer

c) Colorectal cancer

d) Lung cancer

e) Ovarian cancer

102. Which of the following statements is true about cancer?

a) Each year, about 400,000 Americans are diagnosed with cancer.

b) Cancer develops when cells lose the ability to regulate growth.

c) Cancer rates have been rising steadily for the past five decades.

d) Heredity has not been found to be a factor in cancer.

e) Two-thirds of cancers are caused by viruses.

103. Which of the following is NOT a cause of cancer?

a) Bacteria

b) Heredity

c) Sun exposure

d) Viruses

e) Smoking

104. Which of the following lead(s) to two of every three cancer deaths in the United States?

a) Heredity

b) Exposure to chemicals

c) Viruses

d) Smoking and diet

e) Exposure to the sun

105. About ________ percent of lung cancer deaths are directly related to smoking, and about ________ percent of total cancer deaths are related to dietary patterns.

a) 50; 50

b) 80; 10

c) 70; 20

d) 60; 40

e) 90; 30

106. High consumption of saturated fat is linked to which types of cancer?

a) Skin and brain

b) Colorectal and breast

c) Breast and skin

d) Prostate and colorectal

e) Breast and prostate

107. Which of the following statements is true about controllable lifestyle factors and cancer?

a) The only cancer linked to smoking, so far, is lung cancer.

b) Dietary patterns appear to account for almost twice as many cases of cancer as does smoking.

c) Research has provided clear evidence that stress causes cancer.

d) The most deadly form of skin cancer is also the most common.

e) Alcohol consumption raises the risk of mouth, pharynx, and esophagus cancers.

108. Basal cell carcinoma is the ________ common type of skin cancer and it is ________ dangerous.

a) most; not

b) least; most

c) most; most

d) least; least

e) most; least

109. Which of the following statements is true about skin cancer?

a) The most common skin cancer is also the deadliest.

b) Basal cell carcinomas account for about 25 percent of skin cancers.

c) Melanoma is the most deadly type of skin cancer.

d) Melanoma kills about 2,000 people every year.

e) Basil cell carcinoma is curable at any stage.

110. Melanoma accounts for ________ percent of skin cancers, and it claims approximately ________ lives in the United States every year.

a) 5; 8,000

b) 25; 100,000

c) 50; 25,000

d) 75; 80,000

e) 75; 10,000

111. Bonita has a chronic lung disease in which her bronchial airways often become blocked or obstructed. Which disease does Bonita have?

a) Basal cell carcinoma

b) Melanoma

c) Asthma

d) Peptic ulcers

e) Lung cancer

112. What is the role of stress in asthma?

a) Stress has been found to have no effect on asthma.

b) Stress causes asthma in about 25 percent of cases.

c) Stress causes asthma in the majority of cases.

d) Stress may increase susceptibility to attacks by asthma sufferers.

e) Stress has not been studied in the context of asthma.

113. What is the most common type of headache?

a) Migraine

b) Muscle-tension

c) Cluster

d) Piercing

e) Throbbing

114. All of the following factors can trigger a migraine headache EXCEPT

a) changes in barometric pressure.

b) constricted blood vessels.

c) ripened cheese.

d) chocolate.

e) stress.

115. Imbalances in which neurotransmitter are associated with migraine headaches?

a) Dopamine

b) Acetylcholine

c) GABA

d) Serotonin

e) Epinephrine

116. Which of the following statements is true about migraine headaches?

a) Migraine headaches typically last from 1 to 2 hours.

b) Migraine headaches usually involve a tensing of the scalp, face, shoulder, and neck muscles.

c) Migraine headaches have been linked to imbalances of norepinephrine.

d) Migraine headaches can be triggered by hormonal fluctuations.

e) Pain relievers that dilate blood vessels help relieve migraine headaches.

117. The bacterium H. pylori is found in which part of the body?

a) The brain

b) The heart

c) The lungs

d) The stomach

e) The liver

118. Which of the following statements regarding peptic ulcers is FALSE?

a) About 1 in 10 people in the United States suffers from peptic ulcers.

b) Stress is the major cause of peptic ulcers.

c) Stress may play a role in peptic ulcers when it increases the release of stomach acid.

d) In many cases, peptic ulcers can be cured with antibiotics that attack the bacterium H. pylori.

e) Only a minority of people with H. pylori develop peptic ulcers.

119. What do scientists suspect is the role of stress with regard to peptic ulcers?

a) It does not play any role at all.

b) It causes peptic ulcers to form.

c) It increases the release of stomach acid, which, together with H. pylori, causes peptic ulcers.

d) It destroys the H. pylori bacterium, which in turn leads to an increase in peptic ulcers.

e) It contributes to an increase in the number of H. pylori bacteria, which makes it more likely that peptic ulcers will develop.

120. Biofeedback is recommended for management of which of the following?

a) Asthma

b) Cancer

c) Migraine headaches

d) Peptic ulcers

e) Coronary heart disease

122. Sylvia decided to take various measures to try to lower the stress in her work environment. Most of the measures were helpful. The one that was NOT was

a) delegating responsibility.

b) sticking to set deadlines.

c) joining a car pool.

d) taking frequent breaks.

e) prioritizing daily goals.

123. What percent of Americans engage in regular physical activity?

a) 5 percent

b) 15 percent

c) 30 percent

d) 55 percent

e) 70 percent

124. Which of the following women appears to be handling stress in the most effective manner?

a) Gabrielle, who keeps a journal where she writes down disturbing thoughts

b) Marla, who has cancer and decides not to scare herself with information

c) Regina, who finds that she can accomplish a lot by taking work home from her office

d) Lydia, who never says "no" to anybody when asked to do something

e) Alicia, who mostly stays home at night because she doesn't like to socialize much

125. Joan is a teacher who also helps provide care for her aging parents. Lately Joan has been feeling apathetic toward her job. In addition, she has been having more headaches and difficulty sleeping. Joan's condition is best described as

a) burnout.

b) hassles.

c) psychological hardiness.

d) role ambiguity.

e) an internal locus of control.

126. In order to more effectively deal with stress, Rodney repeats the following whenever he encounters an obstacle: "This is not a catastrophe. I am a good problem solver. I can find a solution." Which method for removing distress from stress is Rodney using?

a) Expressing upsetting feelings instead of keeping them bottled up

b) Developing relaxation skills

c) Gathering information

d) Controlling Type A behavior

e) Replacing stress-inducing thoughts with stress-busting thoughts

127. Wynona is a Type A personality, and she is starting to experience physical problems as a result of stress. According to the text, Wynona should try to do which of the following to reduce stress?

a) Read career-related books for enjoyment.

b) Engage in conversation while eating.

c) Spend her spare time doing popular leisure activities.

d) Drive at the speed limit.

e) Take her laptop on her vacation.