PSYC Psychology Chapter 13 answers complete solutions for any quiz and exam

PSYC Psychology Chapter 13 answers complete solutions for any quiz and exam

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1. The combination of all psychological characteristics and behavior patterns that define an individual and characterize the ways in which that individual relates to the world and adapts to demands constitutes the

a) ego.

b) personality.

c) cognition.

d) superego.

e) temperament.

2. Freud's theory is called psychodynamic theory because it deals with the dynamic struggle that takes place between

a) mothers and sons.

b) good and bad people.

c) fathers and sons.

d) unconscious forces within the mind.

e) parents and children.

3. Freud developed an approach to personality called

a) psychoanalytic theory.

b) trait theory.

c) social-cognitive theory.

d) humanistic theory.

e) levels-of-consciousness theory.

4. You meet a psychologist who explains behavior in terms of defense mechanisms and psychosexual stages. This psychologist represents which view of personality?

a) Trait

b) Social-cognitive

c) Humanist

d) Psychoanalytic

e) Levels-of-consciousness

5. From the famous French neurologist Jean Martin Charcot, Freud got the idea that if hysterical symptoms could be removed by hypnotic suggestion, then they must be

a) the result of trauma.

b) faked.

c) psychological in nature.

d) subject to conscious control.

e) nothing to worry about.

6. Freud's belief that we share with nonhuman animals the goal of survival is demonstrated in his conceptualization of the

a) levels of consciousness.

b) id, ego, and superego.

c) sexual and aggressive instincts.

d) psychosexual stages.

e) Oedipus complex.

7. In Freudian theory, the level of consciousness that corresponds to our current level of awareness is the

a) unconscious.

b) conscious.

c) preconscious.

d) superego.

e) ego.

8. In the iceberg analogy, the tip of the iceberg is most like which level of consciousness in Freud's theory?

a) Preconscious

b) Unconscious

c) Ego

d) Conscious

e) Subconscious

9. According to Freud, most of the human mind resides in the ________, and primitive sexual and aggressive instincts lie in the ________.

a) preconscious; unconscious

b) unconscious; unconscious

c) conscious; preconscious

d) unconscious; preconscious

e) conscious; unconscious

10. According to Freudian theory, when you are asked to recall your phone number, you access your

a) unconscious.

b) preconscious.

c) conscious.

d) superego.

e) defense mechanisms.

11. In psychoanalytic theory, animal drives and instinctual pleasures are thought to be contained in the

a) id.

b) ego.

c) superego.

d) alter ego.

e) preconscious.

12. The terms id, ego, and superego refer to which component of psychoanalytic theory?

a) They describe the levels of consciousness.

b) They are types of defense mechanisms.

c) They describe the stages of psychosexual development.

d) They are methods of psychoanalytic therapy.

e) They describe the structure of personality.

13. Freud might say that someone who was displaying excessive aggression was acting according to his or her

a) id.

b) ego.

c) superego.

d) conscience.

e) reality principle.

14. In psychoanalytic theory, ________ is to reality principle as ________ is to pleasure principle.

a) ego; superego

b) superego; id

c) id; ego

d) superego; ego

e) ego; id

15. In psychoanalytic theory, the personality structure that organizes ways to handle delays of gratification is the

a) ego.

b) id.

c) superego.

d) conscience.

e) unconscious.

16. At the toy store, Tamika's ego was evident when she

a) got upset because she couldn't reach a toy on the upper shelf.

b) cried, "I'm thirsty. I want a drink now!"

c) pointed to a doll and said, "I want that."

d) agreed to wait until her birthday, next week, for the tricycle.

e) threw a temper tantrum because she had to get out of the toy fire engine when it was time to leave.

17. In the iceberg analogy, which personality structure(s) lie(s) completely below the water?

a) Both the superego and the ego

b) Both the ego and the id

c) Both the superego and the id

d) Only the superego

e) Only the id

18. Frank says, "My conscience is bothering me." Using Freud's terminology, we would say that Frank is referring to his

a) superego.

b) ego.

c) id.

d) conscious.

e) unconscious.

19. From a psychoanalytic perspective, someone with a very strong sense of morality might be described as having a very strong

a) id.

b) superego.

c) ego.

d) preconscious.

e) conscious.

20. Which part of the personality might be described as "the great compromiser"?

a) The self-concept

b) The unconscious

c) The superego

d) The ego

e) The id

21. The superego imposes punishment in the form of

a) anxiety.

b) fear or dread.

c) guilt or shame.

d) disappointment.

e) feelings of sadness.

22. According to Freud, the major defense mechanism is

a) denial.

b) rationalization.

c) repression.

d) sublimation.

e) reaction formation.

23. In psychoanalytic terms, motivated forgetting is also known as

a) sublimation.

b) repression.

c) regression.

d) reaction formation.

e) projection.

24. Paul forgets to call his mother-in-law on her birthday. He says it just slipped his mind. In the Freudian view, this type of forgetting may represent the defense mechanism of

a) repression.

b) sublimation.

c) rationalization.

d) reaction formation.

e) displacement.

25. According to Freud, the purpose of defense mechanisms is to

a) satisfy the id.

b) destroy the id.

c) prevent threatening thoughts from attaining awareness.

d) unite the id and superego.

e) protect the superego from troubling impulses.

26. Regression is

a) keeping unacceptable thoughts from awareness.

b) refusing to recognize a threatening thought.

c) the use of self-justifications to explain unacceptable behavior.

d) the return of behavior that is typical of earlier stages of development.

e) channeling unacceptable impulses into acceptable behaviors.

27. After 6-year-old Samantha's baby brother was born, she asked to drink from a bottle, just like baby Simon. This may be a case of

a) repression.

b) regression.

c) projection.

d) displacement.

e) sublimation.

28. Ingmar's boss ridiculed him in front of the whole office. When Ingmar returns home, he yells at his wife and children and kicks his dog. This is an example of

a) projection.

b) reaction formation.

c) regression.

d) displacement.

e) sublimation.

29. Refusing to acknowledge a threatening impulse or desire is

a) rationalization.

b) regression.

c) projection.

d) denial.

e) reaction formation.

30. It is often said of substance abusers that the first step in recovery is admitting they have a problem. In Freudian terms, we might say they need to overcome

a) projection.

b) denial.

c) reaction formation.

d) rationalization.

e) displacement.

31. The politician who campaigned most vigorously against gay marriage in his state is exposed as being secretly gay. This scenario appears to be in line with which defense mechanism?

a) Regression

b) Displacement

c) Reaction formation

d) Sublimation

e) Projection

32. When his wife asked him why he drinks so much, Joey said, "I don't drink too much. I only drink socially. I happen to be a very social guy and so I'm always around other people." Joey appears to justify his drinking with which defense mechanism?

a) Projection

b) Repression

c) Sublimation

d) Rationalization

e) Reaction formation

33. Attributing one's own impulses or wishes to another is called

a) projection.

b) sublimation.

c) displacement.

d) rationalization.

e) reaction formation.

34. Rapists sometimes defend their actions by saying their victim acted toward them in a sexually provocative manner. This is an example of

a) denial.

b) displacement.

c) sublimation.

d) projection.

e) regression.

35. Unlike other young children, Benny was never bothered by the sight of blood. In fact, it fascinated him. Later, as a teen, he loved gory movies. Now, as an adult, he writes horror-filled books that are best sellers. Benny appears to be demonstrating which defense mechanism?

a) Projection

b) Displacement

c) Rationalization

d) Regression

e) Sublimation

36. Ruth has conflicting feelings about getting married that she has not allowed to enter her consciousness. On the night before her wedding, when her mother asks what time they need to be ready to leave the house, Ruth answers, "The hearse will be here at 9 o'clock." Ruth's comment is an example of a(n)

a) displacement.

b) projection.

c) rationalization.

d) inferiority complex.

e) Freudian slip.

37. Regarding Freud's view on personality development, which of the following statements is FALSE?

a) Freud believed that physical activities connected to basic life functions are essentially sexual in nature.

b) Freud believed that personality is formed through five stages of development.

c) Freud believed that each stage of personality development involves a shift in the focus of erogenous zones.

d) Freud believed that the stages of personality development are related to the ways in which children seek pleasure from sexually sensitive parts of the body.

e) Freud believed that boys develop womb envy and girls develop penis envy.

38. In Freudian theory, different parts of the body associated with sexual pleasure are referred to as

a) erogenous zones.

b) fixations.

c) archetypes.

d) defense mechanisms.

e) levels of consciousness.

39. The psychoanalytic perspective suggests that too much or too little gratification at a psychosexual stage may result in

a) an inferiority complex.

b) repression.

c) reaction formation.

d) fixation.

e) regression.

40. Emilio's therapist says that Emilio's personality is fixated at the earliest stage of development. In lay terms, the therapist means that Emilio's personality is

a) obsessed with the earliest stage.

b) overly sentimental.

c) completely formed by the earliest stage.

d) functioning optimally.

e) stuck at the earliest stage.

41. What is the correct ordering of Freud's psychosexual stages of development?

a) Anal, oral, latency, phallic, genital

b) Oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital

c) Oral, anal, latency, phallic, genital

d) Oral, phallic, anal, latency, genital

e) Anal, oral, phallic, latency, genital

42. According to Freud, the Oedipus conflict arises during which stage of psychosexual development?

a) Anal

b) Phallic

c) Latency

d) Genital

e) Oral

43. On their first date, which was to see a play at a theater, Angela decided that Alex had an anal-expulsive personality because

a) of how perfectly his tie was knotted.

b) when he opened his wallet to pay for the tickets, she saw that his credit cards were alphabetized.

c) he smelled so clean.

d) he wore mismatched socks.

e) he kept quiet when a woman behind them was making comments during the show.

44. Frederico is a perfectionist with a strong need for self-control, order, and cleanliness. Freud would describe Frederico as having a(n)

a) orally fixated personality.

b) anal-retentive personality.

c) anal-expulsive personality.

d) inferiority complex.

e) drive for superiority.

45. Francis is passive, clingy, and dependent, with a pessimistic outlook on life. In which psychosexual stage might Francis be fixated?

a) Genital

b) Oral

c) Latency

d) Phallic

e) Anal

46. From Freud's perspective, a boy resolves his Oedipus complex by

a) forsaking incestuous desires for his mother and taking on an identification with her.

b) unconsciously blaming his mother for bringing him into the world "ill equipped" to deal with life's problems, and then forgiving her.

c) unconsciously blaming his mother for bringing him into the world "ill equipped" to deal with life's problems, and then identifying with his father.

d) developing the ability to control elimination.

e) forsaking incestuous desires for his mother and identifying with his father.

47. Emmanuel teaches fourth graders. At which stage of psychosexual development can Emmanuel expect the majority of his students to be?

a) Phallic

b) Anal

c) Oral

d) Genital

e) Latency

48. A major contribution of Jung to the psychodynamic approach was his belief in

a) castration anxiety.

b) penis envy.

c) an Electra complex.

d) a collective unconscious.

e) the creative self.

49. Among neo-Freudians, ________ is to analytical psychology as ________ is to individual psychology.

a) Jung; Adler

b) Jung; Horney

c) Adler; Jung

d) Horney; Jung

e) Horney; Adler

50. Which of the following is the best definition of the term archetype?

a) The self-aware part of the personality that organizes goal-seeking efforts

b) A constellation of personality traits characteristic of a particular stage of psychosexual development

c) A relatively enduring personal characteristic

d) A deep-seated form of anxiety associated with feelings of being helpless in a threatening and hostile world

e) A primitive image that reflects ancestral or universal human experiences

51. Jung believed that similarities among cultures in dream images, art, and religious symbols are explained by the

a) personal unconscious.

b) collective unconscious.

c) creative self.

d) cultural consciousness.

e) reality principle.

52. Compared to Freud, Jung placed greater emphasis on all of the following EXCEPT

a) present experience.

b) conscious processes.

c) pursuit of self-directed goals.

d) infantile and childhood experiences.

e) self-awareness.

53. Ali is short, is thin, and has a pock-marked face. He wishes he were as tall as everyone else in his seventh-grade class and that his skin were clear. Nevertheless, with conscious effort, he has managed to become the most popular student in class by cultivating a sense of humor and an easygoing manner. Adler might say that Ali is manifesting which of the following?

a) Basic hostility

b) Basic anxiety

c) Reaction formation

d) A drive for superiority

e) An inferiority complex

54. According to Adler, because of their small size and limited abilities, all children harbor feelings of

a) eroticism.

b) inferiority.

c) hostility.

d) penis envy or castration anxiety.

e) anxiety.

55. Which neo-Freudian raised the idea that men may experience "womb envy"?

a) Charcot

b) Adler

c) Jung

d) Erikson

e) Horney

56. Which neo-Freudian is associated with concepts such as "inferiority complex" and "creative self"?

a) Alfred Adler

b) Erik Erikson

c) Carl Jung

d) Mary Cover Jones

e) Karen Horney

57. In Karen Horney's theory of personality development, children may develop a form of deep resentment toward their parents. Horney labeled this

a) basic anxiety.

b) basic hostility.

c) infantile regression.

d) drive for superiority.

e) parental displacement.

58. The major contribution of Freud and later psychodynamic thinkers is considered to be their focus on the

a) unconscious mind.

b) sexual and aggressive instincts of people.

c) basic hostility that children harbor toward their parents.

d) role of social relationships in the development of personality.

e) feelings of inferiority that all children feel.

59. The greatest limitation of psychodynamic theory, according to the text, is which of the following?

a) An overemphasis on conscious motivation

b) The progression and timing of the psychosexual stages

c) The lack of representativeness of the case studies

d) The difficulty inherent in putting its concepts to a scientific test

e) The belief that all children experience an Oedipus complex

60. Describe the eight defense mechanisms, and give an example of each.

61. Summarize Freud's view of the structure of personality.

62. Describe Freud's psychosexual stages of development, including the approximate ages, erogenous zones, and sources of conflict associated with each.

63. Stable and enduring personal characteristics are called

a) habits.

b) tendencies.

c) traits.

d) types.

e) genes.

64. Which of the following is true about traits?

a) Traits cannot be used to differentiate people.

b) Traits are not measurable.

c) Traits are specific to situations.

d) Traits are changeable characteristics.

e) Traits can be used to predict behavior.

65. Who believed that personality traits are physical entities located in the brain?

a) Allport

b) Freud

c) Adler

d) Jung

e) Eysenck

66. Mahatma Gandhi's commitment to nonviolent solutions to social problems is an example of what kind of trait?

a) Ordinal

b) Central

c) Secondary

d) Cardinal

e) Primary

67. In Allport's view, cardinal traits are

a) the most pervasive characteristics of one's personality.

b) basic building blocks of personality.

c) specific preferences.

d) fluctuating patterns of behavior.

e) superficial traits inferred from observation.

68. Allport proposed ________ types of traits in the personality, and they are called ________.

a) two; internal and external locus of control

b) five; neuroticism, extraversion, openness, agreeableness, and conscientiousness

c) three; introversion-extraversion, neuroticism, and psychoticism

d) two; surface and source traits

e) three; cardinal, central, and secondary traits

69. Which of the following people is describing a secondary trait in Allport's model?

a) Antwone, who says, "I am a spiritual person, and the only thing important to me is becoming a priest."

b) Bettina, who says, "I like rap music, and I don't like country music."

c) Cuaron, who says, "My friends say that my basic quality is that I am generous."

d) Deva, who says, "I'm a creative person."

e) Evita, who says, "I like playing soccer because I'm a very competitive person in everything I do."

70. According to Allport, secondary traits

a) reflect superficial differences between people.

b) compete with primary traits for dominance.

c) are the most pervasive components of personality.

d) are the basic building blocks of personality.

e) have a widespread influence across many situations.

71. In Cattell's model, characteristics of personality that can be inferred from behavior are called

a) archetypes.

b) source traits.

c) central traits.

d) surface traits.

e) factors.

72. Cathleen takes the 16PF test of personality. This test will measure Cathleen's _______ traits.

a) source

b) surface

c) central

d) primary

e) cardinal

73. Who developed the 16PF personality test?

a) Eysenck

b) Cattell

c) Allport

d) Jung

e) Bandura

74. In a study of the 16PF results of writers, airline pilots, and creative artists, writers scored higher than creative artists and airline pilots on which factors of personality?

a) Outgoing and happy-go-lucky

b) Self-sufficient and conscientious

c) Intelligent and dominant

d) Controlled and emotionally stable

e) Sensitive and imaginative

75. Which theorist's model of personality describes personality in terms of three major traits: introversion-extraversion, neuroticism, and psychoticism?

a) Cattell

b) Eysenck

c) Allport

d) Freud

e) Jung

76. Evelyn takes a personality test that measures the following personality traits: introversion-extraversion, neuroticism, and psychoticism. Which test has Evelyn taken?

a) The 16PF

b) The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

c) The Rorschach

d) The Thematic Apperception Test

e) The Eysenck Personality Inventory

77. Which of the following people is most likely to be labeled introverted-stable on the Eysenck Personality Inventory?

a) Ira, who makes friends easily and is very laid-back and relaxed

b) Maude, who is shy and anxious

c) Jake, who considers himself a "party animal," is restless, and has volatile mood swings

d) Kwame, who doesn't like to socialize with others and tends to worry a lot

e) Allyson, who likes to be by herself and is calm and even-tempered

78. In Eysenck's model, stable is to neurotic as

a) introvert is to extravert.

b) outgoing is to unsociable.

c) restless is to calm.

d) even-tempered is to emotional.

e) extravert is to psychotic.

79. Darius scores high on psychoticism. In which way is Darius likely to be perceived by others?

a) Warm and concerned about others

b) Tense, anxious, and moody

c) Solitary, reserved, and unsociable

d) Relaxed, calm, and even-tempered

e) Antisocial, hostile, and insensitive

80. Which of the following statements is true about Eysenck's model of personality?

a) According to Eysenck, there are three basic personality types.

b) Eysenck's trait model is more complicated than Cattell's.

c) Eysenck developed a personality inventory called the 16PF.

d) Eysenck believed that introverts inherit a nervous system that operates at a lower level of arousal than that of extraverts.

e) Eysenck believed that biological differences are responsible for variations in personality traits.

81. Cybill takes the Eysenck Personality Inventory and finds that her "type" is extraverted-stable. Which description most likely fits Cybill?

a) Reliable, even-tempered, and calm

b) Passive, careful, and thoughtful

c) Moody, anxious, and rigid

d) Impulsive, optimistic, and active

e) Lively, carefree, and sociable

82. In research reported in the text, a group of mountain climbers scored which pattern on the EPI?

a) High extraversion, high neuroticism

b) High psychoticism, low extraversion, high neuroticism

c) Low extraversion, low neuroticism

d) High extraversion, low neuroticism

e) Low extraversion, high neuroticism

83. The most widely adopted trait model of personality today is the

a) self-actualization model.

b) Cattell sixteen-trait model.

c) Allport hierarchical model.

d) five-factor model.

e) Eysenck three-trait model.

84. Dr. Provost lectures to her psychology class on the "Big Five." What is the topic of Provost's lecture?

a) Freud's five psychosexual stages of personality development

b) The five levels of Maslow's hierarchy

c) The five pioneers of personality theory

d) Five ways of measuring personality

e) The five-factor model of personality

85. In the five-factor model of personality, which two traits parallel two of Eysenck's traits?

a) Neuroticism and psychoticism

b) Psychoticism and introversion

c) Psychoticism and extraversion

d) Extraversion and neuroticism

e) Extraversion and introversion

86. In order to remember the "Big Five" for a psychology test, Marianne took the first letter in each of the five factors and combined them to make which acronym?

a) CRANE

b) CANOE

c) ANGST

d) SCORN

e) CAMEO

87. Current research on the "factors" of personality suggests that there are how many major personality factors that best describe human personality?

a) Two

b) Three

c) Four

d) Five

e) Sixteen

88. Sasha is a thrill-seeking risk-taker. He travels all over the world searching for unique adventures. On that basis alone, Eysenck would probably surmise that Sasha is

a) introverted.

b) extraverted.

c) psychotic.

d) neurotic.

e) stable

89. Tifara takes a personality test measuring the "Big Five" factors of personality. Results from one of the test's subscales suggest that Tifara is conforming, practical, and conventional. Which factor is being measured with this subscale?

a) Openness

b) Neuroticism

c) Conscientiousness

d) Agreeableness

e) Extraversion

90. In the five-factor model of personality, the extent to which a person is sensitive, warm, and tolerant versus callous, cold, and hostile is captured in which personality factor?

a) Extraversion

b) Neuroticism

c) Openness

d) Conscientiousness

e) Agreeableness

91. Which of the following statements is true about the relationship between personality traits and psychological outcomes?

a) Conscientiousness is linked to a lower risk of developing Alzheimer's disease.

b) Among college students, neuroticism is linked to higher grades.

c) Extraversion is associated with lower levels of relationship satisfaction.

d) Agreeableness is linked to aggressive driving.

e) Neuroticism is associated with lower levels of test anxiety among college students.

92. A gene that regulates the neurotransmitter dopamine has been linked to which personality trait?

a) Novelty-seeking

b) Aggression

c) Introversion

d) Conscientiousness

e) Neuroticism

93. The belief that behavior reflects both the ways in which situations affect people's traits and the ways in which people's traits affect situations is called

a) eclecticism.

b) phrenology.

c) locus of control.

d) reciprocal determinism.

e) interactionism.

94. Regarding the trait perspective on personality, which of the following statements is FALSE?

a) Recent research suggests that personality differences can be measured in animals other than humans.

b) Research supports the conclusion that personality factors tend to be relatively stable over time.

c) As people age, they tend to experience increasing levels of conscientiousness and agreeableness.

d) Personality tends to be fixed by the time people reach early adulthood.

e) People act differently in different situations, but they also have typical ways of acting that cut across situations.

95. According to the text, the MAJOR criticism of trait theories is that they

a) merely label rather than explaining personality.

b) assume behavior is relatively stable.

c) cannot be measured by psychological inventories.

d) ignore situational influences.

e) fail to capture the uniqueness of individuals.

96. Summarize four trait perspectives on personality.

97. Watson and Skinner believed that

a) unconscious forces have a major influence on personality.

b) all behavior is learned through either classical or operant conditioning.

c) the environment plays little role in influencing personality.

d) trait theories are the best description of personality.

e) personality consists of the individual's behavior and ways of thinking about the self and the world.

98. An extension of behaviorism that includes internal mental processes and the influences of other people on personality is called

a) social-cognitive theory.

b) cognitive dissonance theory.

c) humanistic theory.

d) psychodynamic theory.

e) expectancy theory.

99. Dr. Sloan, a behaviorist, was invited to give a lecture at a psychologists' convention. He would be sharing the podium with four social-cognitive theorists who would likewise be presenting a lecture. Below is the list of scheduled lectures for the evening. Which of the topics is most likely to be Dr. Sloan's lecture?

a) How personality is shaped by the ways in which a person thinks about himself

b) How expectancies that a person holds about the outcomes of his behavior influences the personality

c) How the value a person places on rewards can determine future behavior

d) How to predict a person's behavior based solely on his history of rewards and punishments

e) How much learning occurs through imitation of others in social situations

100. Social-cognitive theorists believe that personality consists of learned behavior and

a) nothing else.

b) free choices that give meaning and personal direction to behavior.

c) the ways that individuals think about themselves and the world.

d) the drive to achieve one's full potential.

e) unconscious impulses.

101. The primary contributors to social-cognitive theory are

a) Bandura, Rotter, and Mischel.

b) Skinner, Watson, and Pavlov.

c) Jung, Adler, and Horney.

d) Allport, Eysenck, and Cattell.

e) Maslow, Rogers, and Murray.

102. In social-cognitive theory, expectancies are

a) stable patterns of behavior across time and situations.

b) a defense mechanism in which one's expectations keep one from recognizing one's true motives.

c) personal predictions about the outcome of behavior.

d) how other people predict one's own behavior.

e) values placed on desired outcomes.

103. Which of the following students is demonstrating a positive expectancy about schoolwork?

a) Aston, who believes that studying will improve his chances of getting a good grade

b) Beth, who believes that studying will have no influence on her chances of getting a good grade

c) Chad, who places a high value on earning good grades

d) Deanna, who doesn't care much whether or not she earns good grades

e) Ernest, who expects he will earn good grades even if he does not do any schoolwork

104. In Rotter's theory, a subjective value is

a) a measure of the importance of a trait.

b) the worth placed on a desired outcome.

c) other people's evaluation of one's personality.

d) one's own evaluation of one's personality.

e) the likelihood that a person will perform a behavior that she or he sets out to accomplish.

105. Which psychological instrument did Rotter develop?

a) 16PF

b) Thematic Apperception Test

c) Expectancy-Value Matrix

d) Internal-External Scale

e) Self-Efficacy Scale

106. An individual's general belief about his or her ability to obtain reinforcements is referred to as

a) subjective value.

b) objective value.

c) locus of control.

d) reciprocal determinism.

e) self-efficacy.

107. Sylvia has an internal locus of control, whereas Debbie has an external locus of control. Compared to Debbie, Sylvia is more likely to

a) continue eating high-fat, non-nutritious food.

b) do poorly in school because she does not study.

c) put her trust in fate and drive without a seatbelt.

d) adapt an exercise regimen in an effort to become healthier.

e) use a "lucky" pen when she takes her final exams.

108. The idea of reciprocal determinism was developed by

a) Bandura.

b) Rotter.

c) Skinner.

d) Cattell.

e) Mischel.

109. Reciprocal determinism refers to the idea that

a) perceptions of control and predictability determine how well a person copes.

b) people are influenced by the belief that they can obtain reinforcements through work and effort.

c) behavior is influenced by both person variables and situational variables.

d) cognitions, behaviors, and environmental factors influence each other.

e) the value of a behavior is tied to the desired outcome of that behavior.

110. Which of the following best describes Bandura's ideas about the relationship among behavior, cognition, and environment?

a) Cognitions, behaviors, and the environment mutually influence each other.

b) Cognitions influence behaviors, which, in turn, influence the environment.

c) Behaviors influence cognitions, which, in turn, influence the environment.

d) The environment and cognitions jointly influence behavior.

e) The environment influences cognitions and behavior.

111. Which type of learning did Bandura emphasize in his social-cognitive theory?

a) Operant conditioning

b) Classical conditioning

c) Latent learning

d) Observational learning

e) Insight learning

112. Shawn is more likely to smoke marijuana in situations where he believes it will make him relaxed than in situations where he feels he will make a fool of himself. Shawn's ideas about smoking marijuana reflect his

a) efficacy expectations.

b) locus of control.

c) self-esteem.

d) individualism.

e) outcome expectations.

113. Herschel believes that he will be able to perform the behaviors necessary for him to succeed at obtaining his bachelor's degree. Albert Bandura would categorize Herschel's beliefs as

a) locus of control.

b) outcome expectations.

c) efficacy expectations.

d) reciprocal determinism.

e) positive regard.

114. Self-efficacy can handicap performance when it leads to

a) an expectancy of failure.

b) lowered subjective values.

c) an external locus of control.

d) an internal locus of control.

e) overconfidence.

115. The modeling aspect of Bandura's social-cognitive theory was put into practice in Mexico and Tanzania to persuade people to follow the lead of models demonstrating which respective behaviors?

a) Being polite and voting

b) Literacy and safe sex

c) Recycling and being polite

d) Safe sex and recycling

e) Voting and literacy

116. Which social-cognitive theorist argues that behavior is influenced by situation variables and person variables?

a) Walter Mischel

b) Carl Jung

c) Abraham Maslow

d) Carl Rogers

e) Alfred Adler

117. In Mischel's theory, which person variable involves the ability to plan courses of action to achieve goals and obtain rewards?

a) Subjective values

b) Self-regulatory systems and plans

c) Expectancies

d) Competencies

e) Encoding strategies

118. Social-cognitive theorist Mischel's most recent work focuses on the

a) influence of childhood positive regard on adult development.

b) role of locus of control in academic success.

c) influence of outcome expectancies on efficacy expectations.

d) interaction of emotions and situation variables.

e) interaction of emotions and person variables.

119. According to the text, the most important contribution of the social-cognitive perspective has been

a) cognitive-behavioral therapy.

b) the development of psychological tests such as the Internal-External Scale.

c) the idea that unconscious influences and genetically based traits can explain much of human behavior.

d) concepts such as locus of control and self-efficacy.

e) the notion that people are active seekers and interpreters of information, not just responders to environmental influences.

120. Learning theory is to behavior therapy as social-cognitive theory is to

a) cognitive therapy.

b) client-centered therapy

c) psychodynamic therapy

d) behavior therapy

e) cognitive-behavioral therapy

121. Summarize three social-cognitive personality theories.

122. Who are the two main contributors to the humanistic perspective?

a) Jung and Adler

b) Bandura and Rotter

c) Cattell and Allport

d) Murray and Rorschach

e) Maslow and Rogers

123. In the humanistic perspective, realization of one's own potential is known as

a) reciprocal determinism.

b) locus of control.

c) self-efficacy.

d) self-actualization.

e) positive regard.

124. The U.S. Army's slogan "Be all that you can be" is most consistent with which concept from personality theory?

a) Self-actualization

b) Locus of control

c) Projection

d) Sublimation

e) Openness

125. According to humanistic psychologists, personality is

a) one's consistent manner of behavior.

b) the interaction between genes and environment.

c) the conscious direction of one's self toward achieving his or her own unique potential.

d) determined by reinforcement and punishment.

e) based on a hierarchy of pervasive characteristics.

126. In comparison to psychodynamic and behaviorist explanations of human behavior and thought processes, humanistic theory is

a) more positive and includes the idea of free will.

b) more negative but includes the idea of free will.

c) more positive but discounts the idea of free will.

d) more negative and discounts the idea of free will.

e) neutral and unconcerned with issues of free will.

127. The impressions you have of yourself are your ________, whereas the degree of liking you have for yourself is your ________.

a) self-theory; self-esteem

b) self-awareness; self-esteem

c) self-awareness; self-efficacy

d) self-concept; self-esteem

e) self-concept; self-evaluation

128. Sonia showed her daughter CONDITIONAL positive regard when she said,

a) "If you don't feel like going to dance class, you can skip it today."

b) "If you hurry up, we can get to the movie before it starts."

c) "If you share the doll with your sister, mommy will love you."

d) "If you don't like this book, choose another one for mommy to read to you."

e) "If you ride the tricycle without looking where you're going, you might crash and get hurt."

129. Which term did Rogers use to describe acceptance of a person's basic worth under any circumstance?

a) Unconditional positive regard

b) Self-actualization

c) Self-esteem

d) Subjective value

e) Conditional positive regard

130. Generalizing from Rogers's ideas about positive regard, which tactic should parents take with their children?

a) Prize their children regardless of their behavior at any particular time.

b) Accept all of their children's behavior.

c) Bestow approval on their children only when they behave properly.

d) Teach their children to judge their behavior on the basis of whether or not they meet other people's expectations.

e) Reward their children for appropriate behavior and ignore their inappropriate behavior.

131. A group of friends take a test examining self-concept. Other factors being equal, which person is likely to have the highest self-esteem?

a) Dennis, who has a strong discrepancy between his present self and his ideal self

b) Bernadette, who has a moderate discrepancy between her present self and her ideal self

c) Michelle, who has a small discrepancy between her present self and her ideal self

d) Eric, whose present self-description is the opposite of his ideal self-description

e) It's not possible to tell, because perceptions of present self and ideal self are unrelated to self-esteem.

132. Comparing self-esteem among young African Americans with that among young White Americans, which of the following has been found?

a) On average, White Americans have higher levels of self-esteem than African Americans.

b) On average, White American children and adolescents have higher self-esteem than African American children and adolescents, but African American adults have higher self-esteem than White American adults.

c) On average, African American children and adolescents have higher self-esteem than White American children and adolescents, but White American adults have higher self-esteem than African American adults.

d) On average, African Americans have higher levels of self-esteem than White Americans.

e) On average, African Americans and White Americans do not differ in their level of self-esteem.

133. Emma's sense of who or what she should be is her

a) self-ideal.

b) self-concept.

c) self-regard.

d) self-esteem.

e) self-efficacy.

134. Which of the following statements about bestowing unconditional positive regard on children is true?

a) Unconditional positive regard is to be meted out only when children's behavior suits or pleases the parents.

b) Parents should make it clear that the behavior can be bad even when the child is good.

c) Parents need to accept every aspect of their children's behavior.

d) Unconditional positive regard lets children judge themselves according to their parents' expectations.

e) Parents need to turn a blind eye toward bad behavior.

135. Abraham Maslow believed which of the following?

a) That the drive toward self-actualization shapes the personality

b) That the human drive toward self-actualization is learned

c) That most people are not interested in becoming self-actualized

d) That the majority of humans become fully self-actualized by the time they reach old age

e) That very few people are really capable of self-actualization

136. From a scientific perspective, which positive aspect of humanistic theory is also its greatest weakness?

a) Its emphasis on free will

b) Its development of client-centered therapy

c) Its emphasis on self-fulfillment

d) Its focus on self-esteem issues

e) Its focus on conscious experience

137. As an introductory exercise in their Social Influences course, college students are asked to share the answer they provided to the statement, "I am ..." Which student is most likely to be from a collectivistic culture?

a) Helen, who says, "I am Asian American."

b) Paul, who says, "I am a computer science major."

c) Justin, who says, "I am a creative person."

d) Leah, who says, "I am a woman."

e) Nolan, who says, "I am a tennis player."

138. Which of the following countries would be classified as collectivistic?

a) England

b) France

c) Canada

d) The United States

e) Japan

139. Andre is from a collectivistic culture. Compared to his cousin Amy, who is from an individualistic culture, Andre is more likely to value which of the following?

a) His personal accomplishments

b) His elders

c) His material possessions

d) His individual goals

e) His self-sufficiency

140. Which of the following statements regarding culture is true?

a) Most of the world's population lives in individualistic cultures.

b) Differences in cultural values affect how people define and attain status.

c) Extremes of individualism can have undesirable outcomes, but extremes of collectivism generally yield positive outcomes.

d) One aspect of individualism is placing value on meeting social obligations, such as returning money found on the street.

e) A person's mind is only able to operate either on an individualistic basis or on a collectivist basis, regardless of circumstances.

141. A culture that emphasizes social roles and obligations is termed

a) archetypal.

b) self-actualized.

c) individualistic.

d) obligatory.

e) collectivistic.

142. Discuss the principles of the humanistic approach to personality.

143. ________ reflects the belief that people's character and mental abilities can be judged by the patterns of bumps on their skull is called

a) Psychometrics

b) Psychophysics

c) Phrenology

d) Psychokinesis

e) Phrenoscopy

144. Who was known as the leading proponent of phrenology?

a) Henry Murray

b) Gordon Allport

c) Sigmund Freud

d) Charles Darwin

e) Franz Joseph Gall

145. The most widely used method for learning about personality today utilizes

a) formal personality tests.

b) case studies.

c) observational techniques.

d) experimental studies.

e) phrenological studies.

146. In personality testing, self-report personality inventories are also known as

a) predictive tests.

b) subjective tests.

c) projective tests.

d) intelligence tests.

e) objective tests.

147. Which of the following statements is NOT true of objective personality tests?

a) They use truly objective measures of personality.

b) They can be scored objectively because the response options are limited.

c) They rely on people's opinions and judgments.

d) They are derived from evidence gathered in research studies.

e) They are used to measure both single and multiple dimensions of personality.

148. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory was designed to

a) measure intelligence.

b) help clinicians diagnose mental disorders.

c) determine appropriate placements for military personnel.

d) supplement the 16PF.

e) measure a single dimension of personality.

149. For extra credit in her psychology class, Lucretia just took a 567-item self-report personality inventory administered by a graduate student in training. The graduate student told Lucretia that the test is the most widely used self-report personality test in the world. Which test did Lucretia take?

a) MMPI-2

b) Rorschach

c) TAT

d) WAIS

e) Internal-External Scale

150. An item such as "People have noticed that my speech is sometimes pressured or rushed" is likely to appear on which subscale of the MMPI-2?

a) Depression

b) Social Introversion

c) Hypomania

d) Hysteria

e) Paranoia

151. Which of the following is true about the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory?

a) It can be used by itself to make a diagnosis.

b) It compares scores to those of diagnostic groups.

c) It has a multiple-choice format.

d) Scores of 50 or higher on a scale are considered clinically elevated or abnormally high.

e) It is relatively expensive to administer.

152. Callie's therapist gives her a projective test. In her testing, Callie will be expected to respond to

a) large numbers of multiple-choice questions.

b) large numbers of true-false questions.

c) ambiguous or unstructured stimuli.

d) large numbers of rating scales.

e) clear stimuli.

153. The use of projective tests in measuring personality is most consistent with which perspective on personality?

a) Humanist

b) Psychodynamic

c) Behaviorist

d) Social-cognitive

e) Trait

154. Rorschach developed a fam