PSYC Psychology Chapter 9 answers complete solutions for any quiz and exam

PSYC Psychology Chapter 9 answers complete solutions for any quiz and exam

If you find any question here in your quiz or exam, then download this. You can find every answers for your quiz or exam and get A+ grade.

1. As a developmental psychologist, Dr. Brighton is concerned with which of the following topics?

a) How can we measure IQ in an unbiased fashion?

b) When do people prefer to be in the company of others?

c) What is children's understanding of the concept of death at various ages?

d) Why do some people with bipolar disorder fail to respond to the medication that helps others?

e) Who is more likely to be an effective CEO, a male or a female?

2. According to the stages of development presented in the text, middle childhood is considered to be ages

a) two to four.

b) three to six.

c) four to eight.

d) five to ten.

e) six to twelve.

3. The psychologist who maintained that nurture, not nurture, determined behavior, and that he could mold infants into doctors, lawyers, beggars or thieves, was

a) Sigmund Freud

b) Arnold Gesell

c) William James

d) B. F. Skinner

e) John Watson

4. Whether genetics or the environment is the major influence on development is the focus of which issue that underlies the study of human development?

a) Continuity versus discontinuity

b) Stability versus instability

c) Nature versus nurture

d) Universal versus culture-specific

e) Qualitative versus quantitative

5. Paul's father is extremely aggressive and so is Paul. Whether Paul inherited his aggressive tendencies or learned them is related to which question of development?

a) Continuity versus discontinuity

b) Stability versus instability

c) Nature versus nurture

d) Universal versus culture-specific

e) Longitudinal versus cross-sectional

6. To determine the role of nature versus nurture in particular human traits, developmental researchers use all of the following EXCEPT

a) familial association studies.

b) environmental deprivation studies.

c) adoptee studies.

d) twin studies.

e) kinship studies.

7. Whether development is characterized by quantitative or qualitative change is the focus of which underlying question in developmental psychology?

a) Continuity versus discontinuity

b) Stability versus instability

c) Nature versus nurture

d) Universal versus culture-specific

e) Longitudinal versus cross-sectional

8. In developmental psychology, quantitative is to ________ as qualitative is to ________.

a) discontinuity; continuity

b) stability; instability

c) universal; culture-specific

d) culture-specific; universal

e) continuity; discontinuity

9. Your psychology professor lectures on evidence suggesting that certain personality traits remain consistent over time, whereas others change with age. With which question of development is your professor's lecture concerned?

a) Continuity versus discontinuity

b) Stability versus instability

c) Nature versus nurture

d) Universal versus culture-specific

e) Qualitative versus quantitative

10. Researchers have found that aborigine children demonstrate certain cognitive abilities several years later than Western European children. This finding is related to which question of development?

a) Continuity versus discontinuity

b) Stability versus instability

c) Nature versus nurture

d) Universal versus culture-specific

e) Qualitative versus quantitative

11. Antoine's second-grade teacher is astonished to learn that he has become a career military officer. When he was in second grade he was the class clown, was undisciplined, and did very poorly. This turn of events is related to which question of development?

a) Continuity versus discontinuity

b) Qualitative versus quantitative

c) Nature versus nurture

d) Universal versus culture-specific

e) Stability versus instability

12. In a longitudinal study,

a) people of the same age are observed at multiple time points.

b) people of the same age are observed at one point in time.

c) people of different ages are studied at one point in time.

d) people of different ages are studied at multiple time points.

e) one or more individuals are studied in depth.

13. What are the two most frequently used methods for studying developmental changes?

a) Experiment and case study

b) Cross-sequential and cross-sectional

c) Longitudinal and case study

d) Cohort and cross-sectional

e) Cross-sectional and longitudinal

14. Lewis Terman's famous study of intellectually gifted children is an example of which type of research design?

a) Cross-sequential

b) Cross-sectional

c) Factor analysis

d) Experimental

e) Longitudinal

15. Which of the following is the main advantage of the longitudinal method of studying developmental changes?

a) The cohort effect

b) The low cost

c) The short span of time required for the study

d) The ability to observe changes in the same individual over time

e) The representativeness of the sample and its generalizability to the population at large

16. Developmental psychologist Lynn Bagley conducts research in which she studies groups of people of different ages at one time. Dr. Bagley is using what sort of study?

a) Longitudinal

b) Cross-sectional

c) Sequential group

d) Cross-sequential

e) Multiple case study

17. Julia's study purported to chart the decline of eye-hand coordination as people age. Her sample consisted of one group of 30-year-olds and another of 60-year-olds. The results showed a significant difference in eye-hand coordination between the two groups, and Julia concluded that the ability does decline markedly. Her study is flawed because she overlooked the fact that the 30-year-olds had improved their eye-hand coordination by playing video games in their teens, something the earlier generation of 60-year-olds did not do. In other words, she neglected to take into consideration the

a) cross-sectional effect.

b) discontinuity effect.

c) cohort effect.

d) zone of proximal development.

e) scaffolding effect.

18. Discuss the four questions that have shaped the study of human development.

19. Each sperm cell contains a(n) ________ chromosome, and each ovum contains ________ chromosome(s)

a) Y; an X

b) X; a Y

c) X or a Y; an X

d) Y; an X or a Y

e) X and a Y; two X

20. Where does fertilization typically occur?

a) In the interior of the uterus

b) In the cervix

c) In the vagina

d) In an ovary

e) In a fallopian tube

21. What is a zygote?

a) A sperm cell

b) An unfertilized egg cell

c) A fertilized egg cell

d) The developing organism from implantation to about the eighth week

e) The developing organism in the later stages of prenatal development

22. What is the correct order of stages in prenatal development?

a) Germinal, embryonic, fetal

b) Germinal, fetal, embryonic

c) Embryonic, germinal, fetal

d) Embryonic, fetal, germinal

e) Fetal, germinal, embryonic

23. Sharon is in the fourth week of her pregnancy. At which stage of prenatal development is her offspring?

a) Uterine

b) Fetal

c) Germinal

d) Amniotic

e) Embryonic

24. In prenatal development, the time between conception and about week 2 is called the

a) germinal stage.

b) fetal stage.

c) embryonic stage.

d) first trimester.

e) fertilization stage.

25. The protective environment inside the mother's uterus is called the ________, and nutrients and waste materials are exchanged between mother and embryo via the ________.

a) amniotic sac; placenta

b) placenta; amniotic sac

c) placenta; neural tube

d) umbilical cord; placenta

e) amniotic sac; neural tube

26. The umbilical cord connects the

a) neural tube to the placenta.

b) placenta to the amniotic sac.

c) amniotic sac to the embryo.

d) embryo and fetus to the placenta.

e) embryo and fetus to the amniotic sac.

27. Xan's offspring is in the embryonic stage of development. Which of the following is occurring for Xan's offspring?

a) It is kicking and making its movements felt.

b) It is about 14 inches in length.

c) It is beginning the process of implantation.

d) Its major organs are beginning to take shape.

e) It has a clearly recognizable human form.

28. The fetal stage of prenatal development lasts from

a) conception to week 2.

b) conception to week 8.

c) implantation to week 8.

d) week 9 through delivery.

e) week 12 through delivery.

29. The organism grows from about 4 inches in length to about 14 inches and from about 1 ounce of weight to about 2 pounds during the

a) germinal stage.

b) first trimester.

c) second trimester.

d) third trimester.

e) embryonic stage.

30. Francesca, who is pregnant, has just felt the movements of her developing offspring for the first time. Given what you know about prenatal development, at which month of pregnancy would you estimate Francesca to be?

a) Second

b) Third

c) Fourth

d) Sixth

e) Eighth

31. The age of viability is the

a) youngest age at which it is safe for a female to be pregnant.

b) youngest age at which an embryo is likely to survive if born prematurely.

c) youngest age at which a fetus is capable of sustaining life on its own.

d) optimal age for women to become pregnant.

e) point in the pregnancy when the danger of miscarriage has passed.

32. Sarah was born prematurely. This means that she

a) was born prior to 40 weeks of gestation.

b) was born prior to 37 weeks of gestation.

c) weighed less than 5 pounds at birth.

d) weighed less than 2,500 grams at birth.

e) weighed less than 2 pounds at birth.

33. Twenty-three-year-old Venetia is thinking about getting pregnant. Her doctor recommends that Venetia begin taking folic acid supplements in order to reduce the risk of what to her offspring?

a) Miscarriage

b) Down syndrome

c) Neural tube defects

d) Cerebral palsy

e) Sudden infant death syndrome

34. Which of the following conditions is a neural tube defect?

a) Spina bifida

b) Cystic fibrosis

c) Down syndrome

d) Cerebral palsy

e) Rubella

35. Nolan was born with a hole in the tube surrounding his spinal cord. Which disorder does Nolan have?

a) Down syndrome

b) Teratogenesis

c) Spina bifida

d) Rubella

e) Cystic fibrosis

36. Teratogen is derived from the Greek word teras, which means

a) abnormal.

b) risk.

c) bad.

d) monster.

e) problem.

37. All of the following are examples of teratogens EXCEPT

a) folic acid.

b) lead.

c) X-rays.

d) mercury.

e) infectious organisms.

38. Teratogens that damage the arms and legs are most likely to have an effect during which weeks of pregnancy?

a) Weeks 1 and 2

b) Weeks 4 to 8

c) Weeks 10 to 12

d) Weeks 20 to 25

e) Weeks 30 to 32

39. Rubella is also known as

a) chicken pox.

b) mumps.

c) German measles.

d) whooping cough.

e) FAS.

40. Tara contracts rubella during the early part of her pregnancy. Her offspring is at increased risk for developing

a) heart disease.

b) lung disease.

c) liver damage.

d) facial deformities.

e) blindness.

41. Impaired hearing and vision, deformed teeth and bones, and liver damage may occur as a result of which teratogen?

a) Congenital syphilis

b) Rubella

c) Lead

d) Alcohol

e) Nicotine

42. Celia smokes heavily throughout her pregnancy. Celia is increasing the risk of what to her offspring?

a) Deformed arms and legs

b) Spina bifida

c) Sudden infant death syndrome

d) Liver damage

e) Deafness

43. Diane's son Lance was born prematurely and weighed very little compared to other premature infants. At age four, he was diagnosed with asthma. Now that he's six years old and has undergone testing in school, he has been found to have a low IQ, a reduced attention span, and hyperactivity. It is most likely that Lance was prenatally exposed to which teratogen?

a) Alcohol

b) Nicotine

c) Rubella

d) Syphilis

e) German measles

44. Which of the following statements is true about maternal use of alcohol during pregnancy?

a) Fetal alcohol syndrome is the leading preventable cause of mental retardation in the United States.

b) Fetal alcohol syndrome affects about 10,000 babies in the United States every year.

c) Fetal alcohol syndrome is associated with such facial deformities as an overly prominent nose, an overdeveloped upper jaw, and closely spaced eyes.

d) Fetal alcohol syndrome occurs only in babies of women who drink heavily during pregnancy.

e) Maternal use of alcohol during pregnancy is linked to sudden infant death syndrome.

45. Regarding the effects of teratogens on prenatal development, it appears that

a) the embryonic stage is the stage most susceptible to major structural abnormalities from teratogens.

b) the fetal stage is the stage most susceptible to major structural abnormalities from teratogens.

c) the germinal stage is the stage most susceptible to major structural abnormalities from teratogens.

d) the amniotic stage is the stage most susceptible to major structural abnormalities from teratogens.

e) all of the stages have an equal risk of major structural abnormalities from teratogens.

46. Sophia, who just found out that she is pregnant, is being tested to see whether she is a carrier of sickle cell anemia. What test is she having?

a) A blood test

b) A fetal DNA test

c) Amniocentesis

d) Chorionic villus sampling

e) An ultrasound

47. Ursula, who is seventeen weeks pregnant, has a prenatal test in which fluid containing fetal cells is extracted and analyzed for biochemical and chromosomal abnormalities. Which prenatal test is Ursula having performed?

a) Babinski test

b) Parental blood testing

c) Ultrasound imaging

d) Chorionic villus sampling

e) Amniocentesis

48. Which prenatal test uses tissue samples from the membrane that holds the amniotic sac and fetus?

a) Amniocentesis

b) Ultrasound

c) Choriocentesis

d) Chorionic villus sampling

e) Parental blood test sampling

49. Ajit has a chromosomal disorder that has caused him to be mentally retarded. In addition, Ajit has facial abnormalities. What disorder does Ajit have?

a) Tay-Sachs disease

b) Fetal alcohol syndrome

c) Spina bifida

d) Sickle cell anemia

e) Down syndrome

50. The chorion is a membrane that

a) contains the fetus and amniotic sac.

b) develops into the nervous system.

c) contains the placenta and umbilical cord.

d) connects the umbilical cord and amniotic sac.

e) allows exchange of nutrients and waste products.

51. Which of the following can be detected by chorionic villus sampling?

a) Sudden infant death syndrome

b) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome

c) Down syndrome

d) Fetal alcohol syndrome

e) Tay-Sachs disease

52. Down syndrome results when there

a) is a missing chromosome from the 21st pair of chromosomes.

b) is an extra chromosome present on the 21st pair of chromosomes.

c) are no chromosomes in the 21st position.

d) is an extra pair of chromosomes in the 21st position.

e) is genetic material missing from one of the chromosomes in the 21st pair.

53. Cora, a 49-year-old woman, has just found out that she is pregnant with her first baby. What is the probability that the baby will have Down syndrome?

a) 1 in 365

b) 1 in 109

c) 1 in 32

d) 1 in 11

e) 1 in 4

54. An image of the fetus and amniotic sac is provided by which prenatal technique?

a) Chorionic villus sampling

b) Ultrasound

c) Amniocentesis

d) Intraplacental recording

e) Parental blood testing

55. Explain the stages of prenatal development.

56. An unlearned response to a particular stimulus is a(n)

a) instinct.

b) habit.

c) reflex.

d) reaction.

e) skill.

57. When two-week-old Carson's father strokes the baby's left cheek, Carson turns his head to the left. Carson's response is called the

a) sucking reflex.

b) eyeblink reflex.

c) Moro reflex.

d) rooting reflex.

e) Babinski reflex.

58. In the Moro reflex, an infant

a) blinks for protection against light or foreign objects.

b) extends its arms and arches its back when its head falls backward.

c) turns its head toward a cheek that has been touched.

d) fans out and curls its toes when the sole of its foot is stroked.

e) curls its fingers around an object that touches the palm.

59. Which reflex may have had the survival value in ancestral times of preventing infants from falling as their mothers carried them around all day?

a) The Moro reflex

b) The palmar grasp reflex

c) The Babinski reflex

d) The rooting reflex

e) The sucking reflex

60. Which reflex protected infants from bright lights and small flying objects?

a) The rooting reflex

b) The Moro reflex

c) The palmar grasp reflex

d) The Babinski reflex

e) The eyeblink reflex

61. When the sole of her foot is stroked, 3-week-old Pam curls and fans her toes. Pam is demonstrating which reflex?

a) Babinski

b) Moro

c) Rooting

d) Palmar grasp

e) Sucking

62. Which of the following statements is true about infant reflexes?

a) The Babinski and Moro reflexes help infants obtain nourishment.

b) The timely presence and disappearance of reflexes is used to gauge neurological development.

c) Most newborn reflexes disappear in the second half of the first year of life.

d) All of the infant reflexes have important survival value today.

e) The basic reflexes develop in the first couple of weeks after birth.

63. What is the biological unfolding of an organism according to its underlying genetic blueprint called?

a) Adaptation

b) Scaffolding

c) Imprinting

d) Assimilation

e) Maturation

64. Maturation is development that is

a) the result of experience.

b) unaffected by genetics.

c) in response to environmental conditions.

d) primarily a function of genetics.

e) learned.

65. Which factor primarily explains why children today are taller on average than children of a century ago?

a) Maturation

b) Improved living conditions

c) Eradication of diseases such as small pox

d) Enhanced parental knowledge

e) Improved nutrition

66. The increase in brain volume between birth and adulthood is due mainly to ________ and ________.

a) formation of synaptic connections; myelination

b) formation of synaptic connections; decreased metabolic activity

c) formation of myelin sheath; neuronal development

d) decreased metabolic activity; neuronal development

e) decreased metabolic activity; formation of synaptic connections

67. Gregor weighed 7 pounds at birth. About how much is he expected to weigh on his first birthday?

a) 11 or 12 pounds

b) 14 or 15 pounds

c) 21 or 22 pounds

d) 28 or 29 pounds

e) 32 or 33 pounds

68. If newborn Fannie is 20 inches long at birth, how tall is she expected to be at her first birthday?

a) About 25 inches

b) About 30 inches

c) About 34 inches

d) About 38 inches

e) About 42 inches

69. Of the five senses, which is the slowest to develop?

a) Vision

b) Hearing

c) Touch

d) Taste

e) Smell

70. If Miguel's son's development is normal, Miguel can expect that his son will develop depth perception by about what age?

a) 3 months

b) 6 months

c) 9 months

d) 12 months

e) 18 months

71. Which of the following statements is true about infants' visual abilities?

a) Infants begin to visually track a moving object at around 3 months.

b) Newborn infants can recognize their mothers' faces.

c) Basic color vision develops prenatally.

d) Vision develops faster than the other senses.

e) Most infants develop depth perception at around 12 months.

72. Who used the visual cliff apparatus to study infant depth perception?

a) Jean Piaget

b) Theodore Simon

c) Harry Harlow

d) Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk

e) Mary Ainsworth and John Bowlby

73. Infant researcher Dr. Collins uses the visual cliff apparatus to test infants' sensory abilities. What, specifically, is Dr. Collins studying?

a) Depth perception

b) Color vision

c) Sound discrimination

d) Visual discrimination

e) Visual tracking

74. A normal, six-day-old baby can be expected to do which of the following?

a) Distinguish components of music, such as pitch and tempo

b) Retain memory for faces

c) Discriminate among happy, angry, and neutral facial expressions

d) Discern his mother's voice from other voices

e) Differentiate between various speech sounds, such as "ba" and "ma"

75. Infants show preferences for sweets at

a) birth.

b) 2 weeks of age.

c) 1 month of age.

d) 6 months of age.

e) 9 months of age.

76. Expectant parents Brad and Jaime took special care in choosing the paint colors for the baby's nursery. At what age will the baby have the ability to see them as pink and lilac, rather than as shades of gray?

a) A few hours after birth

b) At 2 weeks of age

c) At 8 weeks of age

d) At 6 months of age

e) At 1 year of age

77. If Felicity's development is average, she can be expected to discriminate among happy, angry, and neutral facial expressions at what age?

a) At birth

b) 2 to 4 weeks

c) 1 to 2 months

d) 4 to 6 months

e) 10 to 12 months

78. If an infant has learned to activate a crib mobile by kicking and she then retains the memory of the behavior for several days, that infant can be as young as

a) 1 month.

b) 2 months.

c) 4 months.

d) 6 months.

e) 8 months.

79. Pedro just began lifting his chin and bringing objects to his mouth. What age would you guess Pedro to be?

a) Less than 2 weeks old

b) 2 to 4 weeks old

c) 4 to 8 weeks old

d) 2 to 3 months old

e) 4 to 6 months old

80. If 6-month-old Mikhail's development is normal, he can be expected to do which of the following?

a) Stand while holding on

b) Sit without support

c) Stand without support

d) Walk while holding on

e) Roll over

81. At the end of her first year, Evana has mastered the most difficult balancing problem she will ever encounter in her life. What skill has she mastered?

a) Walking

b) Crawling

c) Creeping

d) Balancing on one foot

e) Standing without support

82. A typical infant can stand without support by around

a) 5 months.

b) 7 months.

c) 9 months.

d) 12 months.

e) 15 months.

83. Every morning since she was 2 weeks old, Angela has been greeted by the smiling face of her nanny, Suzy. At what age will Angela begin to have the ability to retain a memory of what Suzy's face looks like?

a) At 1 month

b) At 3 months

c) At 4 months

d) At 6 months

e) At 8 months

84. When are newborn infants typically capable of imitating their parents' facial expressions?

a) Within minutes of their birth

b) At about 1 week of age

c) At about 2 weeks of age

d) At about 4 weeks of age

e) At about 2 months of age

85. Define the term reflex, and describe six reflexes that young infants have.

86. Psychologists use which term to describe a characteristic style of behavior or disposition?

a) Habit

b) Temperament

c) Reflex

d) Instinct

e) Personality

87. The New York Longitudinal Study (NYLS) was a landmark study of

a) attachment.

b) temperament.

c) learning.

d) parenting styles.

e) peer relationships.

88. The New York Longitudinal Study identified ________ types of temperament, which are called ________.

a) four; secure, insecure-avoidant, disorganized, and insecure-resistant

b) three; easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm-up

c) three; Types A, B, and C

d) three; permissive, authoritarian, and authoritative

e) two; assimilating and accommodating

89. The New York Longitudinal Study found that about how many children could be classified into one of three temperament groups?

a) 52 percent

b) 65 percent

c) 75 percent

d) 83 percent

e) 97 percent

90. Eight-month-old Finnegan is playful and responds positively to changes. He generally has a happy mood, and he quickly developed a regular sleeping and feeding schedule. Using terminology from the New York Longitudinal Study, Finnegan would be categorized as what type of child?

a) Pleasant

b) Secure

c) Positive

d) Easy

e) Slow-to-warm-up

91. In the New York Longitudinal Study of temperament, the majority of children were classified as which type of children?

a) Secure

b) Slow-to-warm-up

c) Mixed

d) Difficult

e) Easy

92. Children who react negatively to change and are generally irritable are classified as having what kind of temperament?

a) Strong-willed

b) Insecure

c) Contrary

d) Difficult

e) Slow-to-warm-up

93. Six-month-old Charlotte exhibits the characteristics of a slow-to-warm-up temperament. Which of the following would be a typical behavior for Charlotte?

a) Exhibiting a high activity level

b) Showing interest in novel stimuli

c) Becoming overly excited in strange surroundings

d) Adjusting easily to new situations

e) Withdrawing from an unfamiliar setting

94. In descriptions of temperament, another term for "slow-to-warm-up" is

a) difficult.

b) detached.

c) inhibited.

d) insecure.

e) avoidant.

95. What type of infant temperament is associated with the best adjustment in adulthood?

a) Inhibited

b) Slow-to-warm-up

c) Difficult

d) Easy

e) Secure

96. Compared to the other temperament groups, difficult infants tend to

a) have earlier and better language development.

b) be well adjusted as adults.

c) be subdued.

d) not be "pushovers."

e) be calm and easily soothed

97. Dawn's two-year-old son, Trevor, has a difficult temperament. It's likely that Trevor will become an aggressive preschooler if Dawn treats him in what way?

a) In an easygoing, laissez-faire manner

b) In a punitive and unresponsive manner

c) In a manner that lets him see her as a "pushover"

d) In a strict but loving manner

e) Spoiling him by granting his every wish

98. The formation, in a newborn animal, to the first moving object seen after birth is called

a) bonding.

b) attachment.

c) autonomy.

d) adaptation.

e) imprinting.

99. Are bonding and attachment different, and if so, how?

a) Yes;, bonding happens in animals, and attachment happens in humans.

b) Yes; bonding happens only with mothers, whereas attachment happens with mothers or fathers.

c) Yes; bonding is the parent's tie to the infant, whereas attachment is the infant's tie to the caregiver.

d) Yes; the environment primarily influences bonding, whereas attachment is influenced primarily by genetics.

e) No, they are not different; they are alternative terms for the same concept.

100. Who conducted famous studies on imprinting in geese and other species?

a) Erik Erikson

b) Harry Harlow

c) John Bowlby

d) Konrad Lorenz

e) Lev Vygotsky

101. In the film Fly Away Home, a group of abandoned goslings develop a strong bond with a young girl. Because their mother is not there, the girl teaches the geese to fly using an ultralite airplane. This film is a good example of which concept from developmental psychology?

a) Attachment

b) Parenting styles

c) Conservation

d) Temperament

e) Imprinting

102. Who was the first theorist to focus on the study of attachment in human infants?

a) John Bowlby

b) Harry Harlow

c) Diana Baumrind

d) Konrad Lorenz

e) Mary Ainsworth

103. In their landmark study with rhesus monkeys, the Harlows found that infant monkeys, who had been separated from their biological mothers, showed preference for and attachment to which type of mother?

a) A human female

b) A human male

c) One made out of wire and a bottle

d) One made out of soft terry-cloth

e) A mechanical one that moved and made noise

104. In their research with baby rhesus monkeys, what did the Harlows demonstrate to be a strong determinant of attachment?

a) Comfort contact

b) An affectionate mother

c) Food

d) Communication

e) Temperament

105. Who proposed the idea that infants and young children need to use their parents as a "secure base" from which to venture into unfamiliar situations?

a) John Bowlby

b) Diana Baumrind

c) Erik Erikson

d) Jean Piaget

e) Mary Ainsworth

106. The Strange Situation was developed to study

a) imprinting in geese.

b) attachment in monkeys.

c) attachment in human infants.

d) bonding with surrogate mothers.

e) temperament of human infants.

107. In the original attachment research using the Strange Situation, about what percentage of infants showed an insecure-resistant pattern of attachment?

a) Less than 2 percent

b) About 10 percent

c) About 20 percent

d) About 35 percent

e) Between 65 and 70 percent

108. In her original research on attachment, Ainsworth noted that the majority of infants displayed which style of attachment?

a) Secure

b) Slow-to-warm-up

c) Disorganized/disoriented

d) Insecure-avoidant

e) Insecure-resistant

109. When 11-month-old Ethan is in a new environment, he feels free to explore. However, he periodically "checks in" with his caregiver during exploration. If his caregiver leaves the room, Ethan sometimes cries and limits his exploration. Upon his caregiver's return, Ethan gives a warm greeting and then begins his exploration again. Generalizing from research on attachment, Ethan's attachment would be described as

a) easy.

b) secure.

c) disorganized.

d) insecure-avoidant.

e) insecure-resistant.

110. Is there one attachment style that is exhibited by a majority of middle-class infants in Western cultures?

a) Yes, the disorganized/disoriented attachment style

b) Yes, the insecure-avoidant attachment style

c) Yes, the insecure-resistant attachment style

d) Yes, the secure attachment style

e) No; the attachment styles are distributed equally among infants

111. Dr. Betts conducts a study of infant attachment. One child, Leon, seems confused during the observation period. He is unable to directly approach his caregiver, even when he is very distressed. It appears that Leon does not have a consistent strategy for dealing with separations and reunions. Betts classifies Leon's attachment style as

a) insecure-avoidant.

b) insecure-resistant.

c) insecure-difficult.

d) insecure-slow-to-warm-up.

e) disorganized/disoriented.

112. Which of the following statements is true of what research has revealed about attachment?

a) Attachment behaviors have no effect on development beyond infancy.

b) The Strange Situation is an appropriate method for measuring attachment behaviors in children from non-Western cultures.

c) Mothers often recreate, with their children, the types of attachment relationships they had with their own mothers.

d) The quality of maternal care has no bearing on whether or not an infant develops a secure attachment.

e) Cross-culturally, the majority of infants show an insecure pattern of attachment.

113. In early childhood, Shandra developed the idea that people are not to be trusted and are undependable. Shandra's expectancies about how others are likely to respond in close relationships is called a(n)

a) attachment-avoidance paradigm.

b) internal working model.

c) faulty attributional style.

d) irreversible expectation.

e) mistrust schema.

114. Bowlby believed that children who form secure attachments in infancy would develop an internal working model of others as ________ and of themselves as ________.

a) needy; trustworthy and dependable

b) self-centered; self-sufficient

c) cold and unloving; incapable of having a loving relationship

d) dependable and trustworthy; deserving love

e) loving and giving; needy

115. Which of the following statements is true about attachment?

a) Securely attached infants are likelier to develop higher self-esteem when they grow up.

b) There is no correlation between mothers' attachment styles and those of their infants.

c) Securely attached infants are likely to show greater dependence on others when they grow up.

d) There is no correlation between emotional health in adulthood and attachment style in infancy.

e) There is no correspondence between infancy attachment patterns and the close relationships of adulthood.

116. If Derek is like the average American father, he is more likely than his wife to engage in which of the following activities with his infant son?

a) Feeding him

b) Changing his diaper

c) Playing physically with him

d) Bathing him

e) Singing to him

117. Compared to Chinese, Malaysian, and Indian fathers, American fathers tend to engage their children more in what type of play?

a) Physical

b) Cooperative

c) Give-and-take

d) Intellectual

e) Quiet

118. Generalizing from research on cultural differences in parenting, which cultural group is most likely to encourage strong kinship bonds, distribution of child care responsibilities among different family members, and a focus on the grandmother as the direct provider of child care?

a) African American

b) Hispanic American

c) Chinese

d) Japanese

e) European American

119. In which culture is there a particularly strong emphasis on respect for parental authority?

a) Hispanic American

b) European American

c) African American

d) Traditional Hispanic

e) Asian

120. Chris and Pat set limits for their children without being overcontrolling. Which style of parenting are they using?

a) Authoritative

b) Authoritarian

c) Permissive

d) Assertive

e) Secure

121. Among parenting styles, rigid is to ________ as lax is to ________.

a) authoritative; permissive

b) authoritarian; authoritative

c) permissive; authoritarian

d) permissive; authoritative

e) authoritarian; permissive

122. Sociocultural differences aside, research on parenting styles suggests that the most effective parenting style is

a) authoritative.

b) authoritarian.

c) permissive.

d) secure.

e) assertive.

123. Aimee was late coming home from school. Even though she had a reasonable excuse, her parents grounded her for a month and suspended her allowance. This sounds like which style of parenting?

a) Authoritarian

b) Authoritative

c) Permissive

d) Inhibited

e) Assertive

124. Andrew took the family car without permission. He seriously damaged it while joyriding. A week later, his parents bought him a car of his own. This is an example of which parenting style?

a) Authoritarian

b) Authoritative

c) Permissive

d) Restrictive

e) Inconsistent

125. After studying the topic of parenting styles in psychology class and learning that children of authoritative parents have the most positive outcomes, Abigail was determined to become an authoritative mother. Accordingly, when interacting with her daughter, Tammy, what is one thing that she should do?

a) Encourage Tammy to keep her opinions to herself and obey authority figures.

b) Avoid demonstrative shows of affection.

c) Encourage Tammy to adopt more mature behaviors.

d) Refrain from explaining rules or the rationale for rules.

e) Use praise sparingly.

126. Other factors being equal, which child is at highest risk for negative outcomes in adolescence, such as poor school performance and low self-confidence?

a) A boy raised by permissive parents

b) A girl raised by permissive parents

c) A boy raised by authoritarian parents

d) A girl raised by authoritarian parents

e) A boy or girl raised by authoritative parents

127. Compared to children with friends, peer-rejected children

a) have higher self-esteem.

b) are perceived as less sensitive and caring.

c) are more enthusiastic about attending school.

d) do better on achievement measures.

e) exhibit less antisocial behavior.

128. Which theorist identified stages of psychosocial development?

a) Lev Vygotsky

b) Mary Ainsworth

c) Jean Piaget

d) Sigmund Freud

e) Erik Erikson

129. Harriet is working on building a sense of independence and self-control. Generalizing from Erikson's theory, Harriet is probably in which age group?

a) Infancy

b) Toddlerhood

c) Preschool

d) Middle childhood

e) Adolescence

130. Ten-month-old Kazik's parents are very sensitive to her needs. Whenever she cries, someone tries to comfort her. She will probably effectively resolve which psychosocial crisis?

a) Autonomy versus shame and doubt

b) Initiative versus guilt

c) Trust versus mistrust

d) Industry versus inferiority

e) Identity versus role diffusion

131. What is the correct sequence of psychosocial stages in child development?

a) Industry versus inferiority, autonomy versus shame and doubt, trust versus mistrust, initiative versus guilt

b) Autonomy versus shame and doubt, initiative versus guilt, trust versus mistrust, industry versus inferiority

c) Autonomy versus shame and doubt, trust versus mistrust, initiative versus guilt, industry versus inferiority

d) Trust versus mistrust, initiative versus guilt, autonomy versus shame and doubt, industry versus inferiority

e) Trust versus mistrust, autonomy versus shame and doubt, initiative versus guilt, industry versus inferiority

132. Twenty-four-month-old Eleanor is beginning to desire more independence. She does not like her parents to feed her. Her parents are willing to let her feed herself, even though there is often a big mess. Eleanor is probably going to leave this stage of development with a feeling of

a) initiative.

b) trust.

c) shame and doubt.

d) autonomy.

e) mistrust.

133. Two-year-old Donatella has just been successfully toilet trained by her mother. One day, while at a birthday party, she got so involved in playing "pin the tail on the donkey" that she neglected to ask to go to the bathroom and wet her pants. When her mother yelled at her in front of the other children, it is likely that she contributed to Donatella's developing feelings of

a) inferiority and helplessness.

b) shame and doubt.

c) guilt and sadness.

d) mistrust and selfishness.

e) dependence and lack of control.

134. Amy is an assistant teacher of four-year-olds at a preschool. After taking her college developmental psychology class, Amy determines that the majority of her students will be dealing with which psychosocial crisis?

a) Autonomy versus shame and doubt

b) Trust versus mistrust

c) Initiative versus guilt

d) Industry versus inferiority

e) Identity versus role diffusion

135. Toma is almost five years old. As he was struggling to learn to tie his shoes, his parents became exasperated with him and bought him shoes with Velcro closures. When he tried to make himself breakfast, he ended up spilling cereal and milk all over the floor, causing his mother to forbid him to go into the kitchen by himself again. According to Erikson's theory, Toma may end up with a feeling of

a) shame.

b) guilt.

c) mistrust.

d) inferiority.

e) doubt.

136. Fourth-grade teacher Julie Farraday finds that her students are very eager to be helpful. They seem to care about being productive and involved in the class, as well as in their school. Farraday's students seem to be successfully negotiating the stage of psychosocial development known as

a) autonomy versus shame and doubt.

b) trust versus mistrust.

c) initiative versus guilt.

d) identity versus role diffusion.

e) industry versus inferiority.

137. Pierre's second-grade teacher is very critical of all his work. She rarely praises him and frequently ridicules even his best efforts. As a result, Pierre is reluctant to attempt new tasks. Erikson's theory predicts that Pierre is likely to end up with a sense of

a) mistrust.

b) guilt.

c) inferiority.

d) shame and doubt.

e) insecurity.

138. Research examining the effects of full-time day care on infant attachment has found

a) strong evidence that day care interferes with attachment.

b) strong evidence that day care interferes with attachment, but only in high-quality day care settings.

c) mixed evidence regarding effects of day care's interference with attachment.

d) no strong evidence that day care interferes with attachment.

e) compelling evidence that day care enhances attachment.

139. Researchers found that compared to children who were raised with a stay-at-home mom, children who attended day care

a) showed deficient language skills.

b) were socially immature.

c) were more dependent.

d) were less cooperative.

e) were more aggressive.

140. Summarize Erikson's theory of psychosocial development (for childhood), including for each the stage name, approximate ages, and major psychosocial challenge.

141. Discuss Mary Ainsworth's attachment theory, with reference to the Strange Situation and the three basic attachment styles.

142. Who is considered to be the most important developmental theorist of all time?

a) Sigmund Freud

b) Alfred Binet

c) Erik Erikson

d) Lev Vygotsky

e) Jean Piaget

143. Melissa demonstrated animistic thinking when she said,

a) "My cookie broke into many pieces, now I have more cookie."

b) "It's raining because I got a new umbrella."

c) "My teddy bear fell and got a boo boo. It really hurts him."

d) "Mr. Rogers must be very small to fit inside the television."

e) "Stop signs are red because that's my favorite color."

144. June exhibited egocentric thinking when she

a) showed a lack of concern for a child who fell off the swing.

b) failed to understand that a pretzel broken in two contains the same amount of pretzel as a whole one.

c) spoke to her doll as if it was a person.

d) watched the TV by standing between her brother and the television program he was watching.

e) acted selfishly and refused to share her many orange slices with her hungry friend.

145. Piaget's primary research technique involved

a) rigorous experimental methodology.

b) long questionnaires.

c) extensive surveys.

d) careful observation.

e) twin studies.

146. What is Piaget's term for an organized system of mental representations used to understand the world?

a) Schema

b) Reflex

c) Instinct

d) Operation

e) Hierarchy

147. What general term does Piaget use for the process of changing to function more effectively in meeting challenges?

a) Maturation

b) Adaptation

c) Conservation

d) Centration

e) Habituation

148. Philip has a toy horse that he calls "Horsey." When Uncle Joe brings him a donkey piñata from Mexico, Philip yells "Horsey." Philip is exhibiting

a) object permanence.

b) conservation.

c) assimilation.

d) accommodation.

e) irreversibility.

149. In Piaget's terminology, changing existing schemas to incorporate new information is called

a) reversibility.

b) assimilation.

c) accommodation.

d) conservation.

e) habituation.

150. What is the correct sequencing of Piaget's stages of cognitive development?

a) Concrete operational, sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational

b) Preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor

c) Sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational

d) Sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational

e) Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational

151. In Piaget's theory, object permanence is to ________ as conservation is to ________.

a) concrete operations; sensorimotor

b) sensorimotor; preoperations

c) sensorimotor; formal operations

d) formal operational; concrete operations

e) sensorimotor; concrete operations

152. Third-grade teacher Ben Stallworth can expect that the majority of his eight- and nine-year-old students are in which stage of cognitive development?

a) Concrete operational

b) Initiative versus guilt

c) Preoperational

d) Formal operational

e) Industry versus inferiority

153. According to Piaget, full cognitive maturity occurs in which stage of cognitive development?

a) Concrete operational

b) Sensorimotor

c) Preoperational

d) Accommodational

e) Formal operational

154. Twenty-month-old Hannah realizes that her mother still exists even when Hannah cannot see her. What cognitive achievement has Hannah mastered?

a) Egocentrism

b) Object permanence

c) Conservation

d) Understanding of abstractions

e) Centration

155. Which activity might allow Gwyneth to help her six-month-old granddaughter develop object permanence?

a) Playing peek-a-boo with her

b) Singing the alphabet song with her

c) Singing songs like "Itsy Bitsy Spider"

d) Playing patty-cake with her

e) Reading children's books to her

156. Which of the following is characteristic of the preoperational stage of cognitive development?

a) Egocentrism

b) Conservation

c) Reversibility

d) Deductive thinking

e) Abstract thinking

157. The tendency to view the world only from one's own perspective is

a) centration.

b) authoritarianism.

c) conservation.

d) egocentrism.

e) self-centeredness.

158. Nine-year-old Dakoda realizes that the quantity of water in a glass remains the same, even when the water is poured into a different-sha