PSYC Psychology Chapter 8 answers complete solutions for any quiz and exam

PSYC Psychology Chapter 8 answers complete solutions for any quiz and exam

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1. Motivation consists of factors that activate, direct, and ________ goal-directed behavior.

a) transform

b) evaluate

c) discharge

d) accomplish

e) sustain

2. The needs or wants that drive behavior and explain why we do what we do are called

a) instincts.

b) motives.

c) perceptions.

d) incentives.

e) cognitions.

3. Motives address the fundamental question of the ________ of behavior.

a) "who"

b) "what"

c) "why"

d) "where"

e) "when"

4. What is an instinct?

a) A drive that is acquired through experience

b) A factor that activates, directs, and sustains goal-directed behavior

c) An innate pattern of responding that is species-specific

d) An internal state that prompts stimulation-seeking behavior

e) An innate reward or other stimulus that motivates one to act

5. Which of the following theorists supported instinct theory?

a) Walter Cannon and Philip Bard

b) Leon Festinger and J. Merrill Carlsmith

c) Harry Harlow and Marvin Zuckerman

d) Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers

e) Sigmund Freud and William James

6. One reason why instinct theory fell out of favor is that

a) the list of instincts grew too large to be useful.

b) the best-known psychologists in the beginning of the twentieth century disavowed it.

c) it overcomplicated human behavior.

d) it overestimated the role of culture and learning in human behavior.

e) it explained behavior without describing it.

7. Aidan is a psychologist who experiments with rats. He says rats run in mazes because it's in their nature to do so. Aidan's explanation expresses support for

a) drive theory.

b) incentive theory.

c) instinct theory.

d) arousal theory.

e) evolutionary theory.

8. A proponent of drive theory would explain that people like to eat at fast-food places because

a) when they're hungry, they instinctively gravitate to the fastest source of food.

b) television commercials make them associate such places with psychological rewards.

c) many others are doing so and it gives them a feeling of belonging.

d) doing so satisfies their hunger.

e) they find it more stimulating to eat out than to stay home and eat.

9. The foremost advocate of drive theory was

a) Clark Hull.

b) Sigmund Freud.

c) William James.

d) William McDougall.

e) Harry Harlow.

10. A need is

a) the same thing as an instinct.

b) a state of deprivation or deficiency.

c) a state of bodily tension.

d) a learned desire.

e) a reward that motivates.

11. Which of the following is the best definition of drive?

a) A state of internal tension brought about by conflicting attitudes and behavior

b) A reward or other stimuli that motivates one to act

c) A state of deprivation or deficiency

d) A genetically programmed pattern of response specific to members of a particular species

e) A state of bodily tension that arises from an unmet need

12. Homeostasis is the basis for which theory of motivation?

a) Instinct theory

b) Arousal theory

c) Drive theory

d) Need theory

e) Cognitive dissonance theory

13. When Walter's blood sugar dips, he becomes hungry. He eats, and then he is no longer hungry; his body is back in balance. This process is an example of

a) the Yerkes-Dodson law.

b) instinct.

c) homeostasis.

d) optimal level of arousal.

e) cognitive dissonance.

14. Homeostasis refers to the tendency of the

a) parts of the body to grow at an even rate

b) body to maintain a steady internal state.

c) stomach to reject harmful substances.

d) brain to prefer constant stimulation.

e) organism to instinctively build a home.

15. Drive reduction involves

a) acting upon instincts.

b) an increase in homeostasis.

c) a decrease in homeostasis.

d) satisfaction of a state of bodily tension.

e) the "pull" of a goal or reward.

16. In drive theory, biological drives are also known as

a) initial drives.

b) essential drives.

c) primary drives.

d) instinctual drives.

e) secondary drives.

17. Which of the following is a secondary drive?

a) Hunger

b) Thirst

c) Sexual desire

d) Desire to earn money

e) Sleep

18. We are motivated to eat because eating relieves a state of tension arising from a need for food. This is the central idea behind

a) arousal theory.

b) drive theory.

c) instinct theory.

d) need theory.

e) cognitive dissonance theory.

19. In drive theory, innate is to ________ as experience is to ________.

a) primary drives; secondary drives

b) biological drives; primary drives

c) homeostasis; imbalance

d) imbalance; homeostasis

e) secondary drives; primary drives

20. According to drive theory, secondary drives are

a) learned through experience.

b) homeostatically controlled.

c) based on instincts.

d) essential for survival.

e) inborn.

21. Who conducted research suggesting that humans and many other animals have innate needs for exploration and activity?

a) Charles Darwin

b) David McClelland

c) Abraham Maslow

d) Leon Festinger

e) Harry Harlow

22. Stimulus motives are

a) internal states that prompt inquisitive and exploratory behavior.

b) essential for survival.

c) observed only in humans.

d) observed in other animals, but not in humans.

e) rewards that motivate animals to act.

23. Innate, biologically based needs to explore and manipulate one's environment are called

a) incentives values.

b) expressed behaviors.

c) stimulus motives.

d) secondary drives.

e) extrinsic motives.

24. With regard to arousal, drive theory suggests that

a) arousal is irrelevant to motivation.

b) there is a motivation to reduce arousal.

c) there is a motivation to increase arousal.

d) there is a motivation to maintain a constant level of arousal.

e) motivation should first increase arousal and then reduce arousal.

25. Arousal theory suggests that organisms have a motivation to

a) reduce arousal.

b) increase arousal.

c) maintain a constant level of arousal.

d) maintain an optimal level of arousal.

e) maintain a high level of arousal for peak performance.

26. Individuals who have a high need for arousal are termed

a) Type A personalities.

b) Type B personalities.

c) sensation-seekers.

d) obsessive-compulsive.

e) stimulation-seekers.

27. Which of the following statements is true about sensation-seeking?

a) Sensation-seekers have a low need for arousal.

b) Golfers tend to score higher on sensation-seeking than do surfers.

c) Sensation-seeking is sometimes associated with risky, illegal behaviors.

d) Sensation-seeking does not appear to have a genetic component.

e) Sensation-seekers are not easily bored.

28. Incentives are

a) physiologically based needs.

b) homeostatically controlled drives.

c) rewards that motivate us to behave in a certain way.

d) instinctually based motives.

e) drives acquired through experience.

29. Even though Raymond's minivan was only a year old and running perfectly, after the divorce, he traded it in for an expensive little sports car. This is an example of

a) homeostasis.

b) incentive value.

c) the Yerkes-Dodson law.

d) drive reduction.

e) effort justification.

30. In contrast to ________ theory, which focuses on the "push" of internal states, ________ theory focuses on the "pull" of external stimuli.

a) arousal; instinct

b) arousal; drive

c) drive; arousal

d) drive; instinct

e) instinct; arousal

31. The amount of influence a reward has on one's behavior is called its

a) homeostatic value.

b) incentive value.

c) arousal quotient.

d) drive reduction quotient.

e) cognitive value.

32. Incentive value is the

a) amount of drive reduction a behavior has.

b) lowest point on the Yerkes-Dodson curve.

c) strength of a reward's "pull" on one's behavior.

d) highest point on the Yerkes-Dodson curve.

e) amount of effort expended in attaining a difficult goal.

33. Festinger and Carlsmith conducted a landmark experiment investigating

a) homeostasis.

b) cognitive dissonance.

c) incentive values.

d) the Yerkes-Dodson law.

e) the hierarchy of needs.

34. In the famous experiment on cognitive dissonance, what was the independent variable?

a) Whether the task was boring or not

b) Evaluation of the task before payment

c) Evaluation of the task after payment

d) The amount of money paid to subjects to participate

e) Whether the subjects were willing to pay more to participate in the task

35. Cognitive dissonance results when

a) homeostatic mechanisms are insufficient.

b) attitudes and behaviors are inconsistent.

c) incentive values are inappropriate.

d) drive reduction is unaccomplished.

e) stimulation levels drop below optimal level.

36. In the famous experiment on cognitive dissonance, the people in the lower-paid group experienced

a) more dissonance because they could not justify lying.

b) less dissonance because they felt the pay justified lying.

c) more dissonance because they were paid for lying.

d) less dissonance because the money was not important.

e) the same level of dissonance as people in the higher-paid group.

37. The people in the higher-paid group in the Festinger and Carlsmith study experienced

a) more dissonance because they could not justify lying.

b) less dissonance because they felt the pay justified lying.

c) more dissonance because they were paid for lying.

d) less dissonance because the money was not important.

e) no dissonance because they changed their feelings about the task.

38. Jackie is trying to join a sorority. During "rush week," Jackie has to participate in all types of humiliating tasks. After the week is over and she is waiting to find out whether she has been accepted, Jackie's motivation to join the sorority is even higher. Jackie's experience is predicted by which motivational concept?

a) Effort justification

b) Optimal level of arousal

c) The Yerkes-Dodson law

d) Stimulus motives

e) Sensation-seeking

39. Charlie is most likely to experience cognitive dissonance if he decides to buy the car that

a) is black inside and outside, which might mean less maintenance, a good thing since he hates fussing with cars.

b) is advertised as quick to accelerate up to 80 miles per hour, a feature that he looked for because he likes to pass slow drivers.

c) received a high rating in customer satisfaction, which is important to him because his last car was a lemon.

d) uses alternative fuel and is therefore environmentally friendly, something Charlie cares deeply about.

e) is sleek and so much sexier than all the other cars but is also a gas guzzler and costs much more than he wants to spend.

40. In motivation theories, psychosocial needs are also known as

a) dissonance needs.

b) arousal needs.

c) interpersonal needs.

d) homeostatic needs.

e) secondary needs.

41. Sandra has a strong need to have social relationships. Psychologists use the term what to describe Sandra's need?

a) Need for affiliation

b) Need for acceptance

c) Need for arousal

d) Need for homeostasis

e) Need for achievement

42. The most widely researched psychosocial need is the need for

a) affiliation.

b) acceptance.

c) achievement.

d) arousal.

e) social relationships.

43. Quentin has a strong need to excel at whatever he does. Quentin's need is called need for

a) achievement.

b) arousal.

c) affiliation.

d) efficacy.

e) external rewards.

44. Who among the following is a major researcher in the study of need for achievement?

a) Abraham Maslow

b) Clark Hull

c) Leon Festinger

d) David McClelland

e) Harry Harlow

45. Which of the following is a finding of the research concerning the need for achievement?

a) People with a high need for achievement usually earn more promotions and money than those with a low need for achievement.

b) Those with a high need for achievement generally look for opportunities with high levels of risk.

c) Goal-setting patterns of those with high need for achievement are the same as those with low need for achievement.

d) There is no correlation between need for achievement and grades earned in school.

e) The need for achievement is driven by intrinsic motivation, but not by extrinsic motivation.

46. Stephen has a low need for achievement. Generalizing from research, we would predict that Stephen will set goals that are

a) so low they are always attainable.

b) so high they are never attainable.

c) so low they are always attainable or so high they are never attainable.

d) challenging but realistic.

e) challenging and unrealistic.

47. Extrinsic motivation is to ________ as intrinsic motivation is to ________.

a) practicing the violin because you want the music to sound good; practicing the violin because you want others to think that you have great musical ability

b) finding out you're going to receive a medal; actually receiving a medal and wearing it

c) hoping someone you know wins the lottery; hoping you yourself win the lottery

d) studying Chinese because you want to master a new language; studying hard to get an "A" in Chinese

e) wanting to win a trophy for long-distance running; wanting to break your own speed record for long-distance running

48. Terry is described as having extrinsic motivation for the achievement of his goals. This means that Terry

a) focuses on immediate outcomes.

b) focuses on short-term outcomes.

c) has a desire for external rewards.

d) has a desire for internal gratification.

e) has low achievement motivation.

49. Regarding sources of motivation, self-gratification is to ________ as money is to ________.

a) intrinsic; avoidance

b) extrinsic; intrinsic

c) extrinsic; avoidance

d) avoidance; extrinsic

e) intrinsic; extrinsic

50. When performing tasks that are intrinsically motivated, we tend to have higher enjoyment and performance when the task involves

a) competition and cooperation.

b) public recognition.

c) structure and a set of well-defined rules.

d) effortless success.

e) personal effort rather than team effort.

51. If Anita would like to increase the chances that her daughter will have high achievement motivation, what should she do?

a) Discourage her daughter from attempting activities that may be beyond her

b) Steer her daughter to easier tasks rather than taking a chance that she will stumble if she attempts difficult ones

c) Help her daughter whenever she appears to be taking on a task that is too difficult for her

d) Reward her daughter when she is persistent when faced with difficult tasks

e) Praise her daughter only for achievement, not just for effort.

52. Which of the following statements is true about achievement motivation?

a) Achievement motivation develops in midlife.

b) People with high achievement motivation generally had parents who helped them a lot along the way.

c) People with high achievement motivation were generally encouraged as children to attempt challenging tasks.

d) Those with achievement motivation are primarily driven by intrinsic motivation.

e) Parental practices do not have much of an influence on the development of achievement motivation.

53. The desire to steer clear of failure is called

a) achievement motivation.

b) avoidance motivation.

c) fear of success.

d) cognitive dissonance.

e) the double approach/avoidance motive.

54. Anne and Norman were both offered a promotion. Anne willingly accepted the promotion offer because she felt it would help her be successful in her career, but Norman refused to accept it because he was afraid he would be unsuccessful. Which motivational concept(s) are Anne and Norman demonstrating?

a) Anne demonstrates avoidance motivation, whereas Norman demonstrates achievement motivation.

b) Anne demonstrates achievement motivation, whereas Norman demonstrates avoidance motivation.

c) Both are demonstrating achievement motivation.

d) Anne demonstrates achievement motivation, whereas Norman demonstrates sensation-seeking.

e) Anne demonstrates extrinsic motivation, whereas Norman demonstrates intrinsic motivation.

55. The hierarchy-of-needs model of human motivation was developed by

a) Maslow.

b) Hull.

c) Festinger.

d) Yerkes-Dodson.

e) McClelland.

56. Maslow's hierarchy of needs has how many levels?

a) two

b) three

c) five

d) seven

e) twelve

57. The highest needs in Maslow's hierarchy are

a) physiological needs.

b) safety needs.

c) esteem needs.

d) self-actualization needs.

e) love and belongingness needs.

58. What is the typical sequencing of needs in Maslow's hierarchy?

a) Love, physiological, safety, esteem, self-actualization

b) Safety, physiological, love, esteem, self-actualization

c) Physiological, safety, esteem, love, self-actualization

d) Physiological, love, safety, esteem, self-actualization

e) Physiological, safety, love, esteem, self-actualization

59. Alexandra is a well-off young woman who has just graduated from college and is engaged to be married to her high school sweetheart. She hopes to become the editor of a fashion magazine one day. Currently, she is working at an entry-level job at the local newspaper. Which need is she working on with her present job?

a) Self-actualization

b) Physiological

c) Safety

d) Esteem

e) Love

60. Which of the following is a criticism of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

a) Human needs may be ordered more rigidly than the hierarchy suggests.

b) A behavior can reflect only a single need.

c) People always fulfill basic needs before higher-order needs.

d) The hierarchy suggests that individuals feel content only when they achieve self-actualization.

e) People may focus their energies on a high need while neglecting needs that are lower on the hierarchy.

61. Maslow referred to the need to fulfill one's own unique potential as the need for

a) self-esteem.

b) self-actualization.

c) intrinsic motivation.

d) self-sufficiency.

e) self-efficacy

62. When a person has not eaten for a while, her blood sugar levels ________ and her fat cells ________.

a) drop; absorb excess fat

b) drop; release fat

c) rise; absorb excess fat

d) rise; release fat

e) drop; are destroyed

63. Summarize six major theories of motivation.

64. Changes in blood sugar and circulating fats are detected by the

a) hippocampus.

b) thalamus.

c) cortex.

d) hypothalamus.

e) corpus callosum.

65. Dr. Summers needs to carry out an experiment with rats that are not hungry. Instead of feeding the rats until they're full, he could accomplish the same thing by stimulating which part of the rats' brain?

a) The lateral hypothalamus

b) The ventromedial hippocampus

c) The lateral hippocampus

d) The ventromedial hypothalamus

e) The thalamus

66. Raphael had his lateral hypothalamus damaged by an aneurysm. Based on animal research, you might expect Raphael to eat

a) more and gain weight.

b) less and gain weight.

c) more and lose weight.

d) less and lose weight.

e) regularly and maintain weight.

67. In contrast to the lateral hypothalamus, stimulation of the ventromedial hypothalamus

a) makes a hungry animal eat.

b) makes an animal stop eating.

c) has no effect on eating.

d) makes a full animal start eating.

e) restores homeostasis.

68. Rat # 303 is eating even though she was fed 10 minutes ago and is full. Rat # 147 is not eating even though it's been 24 hours since he was given food. Which portions of the rats' brains are being stimulated?

a) Both are receiving stimulation in the lateral hypothalamus.

b) Rat # 303 is having her lateral hypothalamus stimulated, whereas rat #147 is having his ventromedial hypothalamus stimulated.

c) Rat # 303 is having her hippocampus stimulated, whereas rat # 147 is having his thalamus stimulated.

d) Both are receiving stimulation in the ventromedial hypothalamus.

e) Rat # 303 is having her ventromedial hypothalamus stimulated, whereas rat # 147 is having his lateral hypothalamus stimulated.

69. Which hormone do scientists believe plays a role in putting the brakes on hunger when the body has consumed enough food?

a) Melatonin

b) Neuropeptide Y

c) Endorphins

d) Dopamine

e) Leptin

70. If you have not eaten in a while, your brain will release additional amounts of which hormone to stimulate your appetite and eating?

a) Serotonin

b) Neuropeptide Y

c) Endorphins

d) Dopamine

e) Leptin

71. Which of the following statements is true about overweight and obesity?

a) In recent years, the rates of obesity have increased sharply.

b) About one-third of the American population is overweight.

c) Obesity is responsible for more than 100,000 American deaths every year.

d) The proportion of overweight young Americans has remained the same over the past 25 years.

e) Although there are overweight children, the problem of obesity is mainly limited to adults.

72. Oliver is obese, but his identical twin brother Norman is not. Compared to Norman, and all other things being equal, what is Oliver's life expectancy predicted to be?

a) Just about the same as Norman's

b) About 1-2 years shorter

c) About 2-3 years shorter

d) About 3-4 years shorter

e) About 6-7 years shorter

73. The most widely used measure for determining obesity is the

a) individual's absolute weight.

b) body mass index.

c) Cannon-Washburn calculation.

d) set-point test.

e) metabolic measurement.

74. The rate at which one's body burns calories at rest is called

a) set point.

b) homeostasis.

c) basal metabolism.

d) body mass index.

e) calorie count.

75. Eliot, the basketball team's star player, weighs 60 kilograms and is 2 meters tall. What is his BMI, and is he overweight?

a) His BMI is 10 and he is not overweight.

b) His BMI is 15 and he is not overweight.

c) His BMI is 15 and he is overweight.

d) His BMI is 25 and he is overweight.

e) His BMI is 25 and he is not overweight.

76. The set point theory of obesity suggests that

a) body weight is regulated around a genetically predetermined level.

b) food intake is controlled by genetics.

c) metabolism is controlled by genetics.

d) the number of fat cells is controlled by genetics.

e) body weight is determined by the body mass index.

77. According to set point theory, when people lose weight

a) food intake is increased.

b) food intake is decreased.

c) metabolic rate is increased.

d) metabolic rate is decreased.

e) stores of fat are released.

78. According to the National Institutes of Health, the point at which people go from being overweight to being considered obese is when their BMI exceeds

a) 20.

b) 25.

c) 30.

d) 35.

e) 40.

79. The two main reasons cited by health experts for the rise in obesity are

a) easier access to food and poorer willpower.

b) an increase in the number of television commercials promoting fast foods and a decrease in parental supervision of children's diets.

c) genetics and the shift to a service economy.

d) an increase in the number of calories consumed and a decrease in exercise.

e) increased stress and an increase in discretionary income.

80. After Santa Claus, who is the figure most widely recognized by American children?

a) Oscar the Grouch

b) Cookie Monster

c) SpongeBob SquarePants

d) Ronald McDonald

e) Harry Potter

81. The text recommends that an individual do all of the following to maintain a healthy weight EXCEPT:

a) Learn to control portion sizes.

b) Limit fat intake and eat more whole-grain foods, fruits, and vegetables.

c) Eat quickly to avoid spending too much time around food.

d) Beware of hidden calories in items like colas and fruit drinks.

e) Engage in regular physical activity to help increase the metabolic rate.

82. Which of the following approaches to weight loss leads to the highest rate of long-term success?

a) Quickie diets that allow people to shed weight rapidly

b) Diet drugs that are widely available over-the-counter

c) Prescribed anti-obesity medications

d) Low-calorie, low-fat diets combined with regular exercise

e) Commercial weight-loss programs

83. Anorexia nervosa is

a) a form of self-starvation that results in extremely low body weight.

b) an eating disorder among individuals of relatively normal weight.

c) a disorder in which episodes of binge eating are followed by purging.

d) a major cause of obesity.

e) equally prevalent in men and women.

84. Charlize has anorexia nervosa. She is at risk for developing which of the following?

a) Obesity

b) Diabetes

c) High blood pressure

d) Irregular heartbeat

e) Chronic diarrhea

85. About what proportion of women develop anorexia nervosa at some point in their lives?

a) One in two thousand

b) One in five hundred

c) One in one hundred

d) One in fifty

e) One in twenty

86. Jane is bulimic. Which of the following would be considered typical behavior for her?

a) Constantly starving herself

b) Bingeing while eating dinner with her family

c) Consuming enormous amounts of green leafy vegetables

d) Exercising compulsively after an episode of overeating

e) Admiring her body in the mirror

87. As a consequence of their frequent vomiting, bulimics are especially at risk for a dangerous deficiency of which mineral?

a) Potassium

b) Phosphorus

c) Calcium

d) Sodium

e) Magnesium

88. Which of the following statements is correct regarding gender differences in obesity in adulthood?

a) Men have higher rates of obesity than women across the lifespan.

b) Women have higher rates of obesity than men across the lifespan.

c) There are virtually no differences in rates of obesity between women and men throughout the lifespan.

d) There are virtually no differences in rates of obesity between women and men until about age 55, when a higher percentage of men are obese.

e) There are virtually no differences in rates of obesity between women and men until about age 55, when a higher percentage of women are obese.

89. Other factors being equal, which of the following people is most likely to develop an eating disorder?

a) Francine, a 20-year-old White female

b) Buster, a 20-year-old White male

c) D. J., a 40-year-old White female

d) Buffy, a 20-year-old African American female

e) Arthur, a 40-year-old African American male

90. Approximately what percentage of young women in the United States develop bulimia nervosa?

a) 1 to 2 percent

b) 8 to 10 percent

c) 23 to 25 percent

d) 36 to 38 percent

e) 59 to 61 percent

91. Disordered eating behaviors in young men are associated with

a) participation in sports that place a value on leanness

b) fear of becoming sexually active

c) being in a dating relationship

d) having a parent with an eating disorder

e) holding an after-school job in a fast-food restaurant

92. All of the following factors may be associated with eating disorders EXCEPT

a) issues of control and perfectionism.

b) cultural pressures to be thin.

c) abnormally low or high set points.

d) sexual or physical abuse.

e) disturbances in brain mechanisms.

93. Discuss the behavioral, genetic, environmental, and emotional factors that contribute to obesity.

94. The three components of emotions are bodily arousal, cognitions, and

a) memories.

b) sensations.

c) expressed behavior.

d) perceptions.

e) motives.

95. Feeling states that are viewed as having physiological, cognitive, and behavioral components are called

a) motivations.

b) attributions.

c) perceptions.

d) attitudes.

e) emotions.

96. Nervous system activation is reflected most directly in which component of emotions?

a) Expressed behavior

b) Cognition

c) Memory

d) Bodily arousal

e) Judgment

97. Subjective, or conscious, experience of feelings is associated with which component of emotions?

a) Cognition

b) Memory

c) Bodily arousal

d) Expressed behavior

e) Nervous system activation

98. Dr. Jones is disappointed and quite upset that his latest research experiment has failed to produce meaningful data. The expressed behavior component of his emotion is evident in which of the following?

a) The activation of his sympathetic nervous system

b) The bad temper he exhibits when he meets up with his research assistant

c) The thoughts running through his head about how others are to blame for the study's failure

d) The elevation of his blood pressure caused by the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine

e) The higher level of arousal that his body is experiencing

99. Who suggested that emotions evolved because they have an adaptive purpose in helping species survive and flourish and was also the first to link specific facial expressions to particular emotions?

a) Charles Darwin

b) Joseph LeDoux

c) Guillaume Duchenne de Boulogne

d) William James

e) Paul Ekman

100. Research has demonstrated that people in many different cultures can identify how many different emotions on the basis of facial expressions?

a) Four

b) Six

c) Eight

d) Twelve

e) Twenty-four

101. The six basic emotions that humans seem to be able to identify through facial expressions are anger, fear, disgust, sadness, happiness, and

a) anticipation.

b) boredom.

c) envy.

d) empathy.

e) surprise.

102. Psychologist Paul Ekman developed facial analysis tools that are now being used by

a) pediatricians.

b) airport screeners.

c) plastic surgeons.

d) advertising agencies.

e) online dating services.

103. Which of the following statements is true regarding cultural differences in emotions?

a) There is stronger cross-cultural consistency in the display and experience of emotion than in the recognition of emotion.

b) Compared to Western cultures, Asian cultures tend to encourage public display of emotion.

c) People are generally more accurate when recognizing facial expressions of emotions in people from their own culture than in people from other cultures.

d) Researchers have found little cross-cultural agreement in how people describe fear, anger, joy, and sadness.

e) Display rules are inborn characteristics.

104. Display rules are

a) cultural differences in the basic emotions.

b) cultural guidelines to interpret emotions.

c) cultural guidelines regulating emotional expression.

d) cultural guidelines regulating feelings of emotion.

e) characterizing emotions on the basis of cultural values.

105. Emotions such as fureai and oime are most commonly reported by people from which culture?

a) China

b) Japan

c) India

d) Tibet

e) Vietnam

106. Mrs. Taylor has two new immigrant girls in her fourth-grade class: Soledad from Mexico and Li-Hua from China. Should she expect the two to differ in how they display emotion?

a) No, the two cultures have similar display rules.

b) No, because they're both female, they will both express their emotions.

c) No, because they're both female, they will both suppress their emotions.

d) Yes, Soledad will suppress her emotions, but Li-Hua will express them.

e) Yes, Soledad will express her emotions, but Li-Hua will suppress them.

107. Which of the following statements is true about gender differences in emotions in Western cultures?

a) Men are more likely than women to express their emotions in both words and facial expressions.

b) Men are given more latitude than women in the emotional expression of anger.

c) Men are more likely than women to recognize and recall others' feelings.

d) Men are taught to express anger through indirect channels.

e) Women tend to smile less than men.

108. One gender difference in emotions is that women are better able to recognize faces showing ________, but men are better able to recognize faces showing ________.

a) anger; happiness

b) anger; sadness

c) happiness; anger

d) happiness; sadness

e) sadness; happiness

109. The facial-feedback hypothesis suggests that

a) people recognize other people's emotions primarily by their facial expressions.

b) people recognize their own emotions primarily by their facial expressions.

c) mimicking the facial expression associated with an emotion will result in the experience of the opposite emotion.

d) mimicking the facial expression associated with an emotion will result in the experience of that emotion.

e) facial expressions exhibited by one person will be mimicked by another.

110. What is a Duchenne smile?

a) A fake smile

b) A sarcastic smile

c) A smile in response to another person smiling

d) A type of smile resulting from the facial-feedback effect

e) A genuine smile

111. Computer programmers used emotion-recognition software to analyze the facial features of the Mona Lisa in Leonardo Da Vinci's famous painting. What did they conclude?

a) That her smile is fake

b) That her smile is genuine

c) That her face expresses happiness, disgust, fear, and anger

d) That she is actually sad

e) That her face is a mask and her true emotions are well hidden

112. Until recently, psychologists neglected to study which of the following emotions?

a) Fear

b) Anger

c) Sadness

d) Anxiety

e) Happiness

113. Researchers investigating happiness have found very little increase in personal happiness once personal income reaches about _______ per year.

a) $10,000

b) $25,000

c) $50,000

d) $75,000

e) $100,000

114. Of the following factors, which is most likely to be linked to personal happiness?

a) Having wealth

b) Having friends

c) Being intelligent

d) Having good health

e) Being a lottery winner

115. Which of the following statements is true about happiness?

a) Happiness is not subject to conscious control.

b) Religious people tend to report lower levels of personal happiness than those who are not religious.

c) Genetics plays an important role in people's general level of happiness.

d) Levels of happiness tend to remain stable over the course of a lifetime, in spite the "ups and downs" of life.

e) Single people tend to be happier than married people.

116. Sharon and Lloyd share what Sternberg would categorize as a romantic love for each other. Accordingly, their relationship includes

a) intimacy, but no passion, decision, or commitment.

b) intimacy and passion, but no decision or commitment.

c) passion, but no intimacy, decision, or commitment.

d) passion, decision, and commitment, but no intimacy.

e) passion, intimacy, and commitment.

117. Which pioneer of the positive psychology movement suggested that people engage in "gratitude visits," "three blessings," and "savorings" to increase their personal happiness?

a) David Lykken

b) Abraham Maslow

c) Daniel Gilbert

d) Robert Sternberg

e) Martin Seligman

118. Martin Seligman refers to three kinds of happiness: pleasure, gratification, and

a) sexuality.

b) meaning.

c) knowledge.

d) personal happiness.

e) self-actualization.

119. Who initially suggested that there are several kinds of love?

a) Marcus Aurelius

b) Robert Sternberg

c) the ancient Greeks

d) the ancient Egyptians

e) Charles Darwin

120. Who proposed a triangular theory of love?

a) Robert Sternberg

b) Paul Ekman

c) Robert Zajonc

d) Joseph LeDoux

e) Daniel Goleman

121. The components of the triangular model of love are intimacy, passion, and

a) companionship.

b) friendship.

c) decision/commitment.

d) trust.

e) full disclosure.

122. The intimacy component of Vanessa and Tyler's love was evident in the way they

a) stuck together even through bad times.

b) desired each other sexually.

c) wanted others to know that they were in love.

d) recognized that they were in love.

e) shared their innermost thoughts and feelings.

123. Michael admits that he loves Susan, but he's just not sure whether he wants to spend the rest of his life with her. According to Sternberg's model of love, Michael displays the ________ component, but not the ________ component.

a) loving; liking

b) decisional; commitment

c) passion; intimacy

d) romance; companionship

e) short-term; long-term

124. Psychologists consider love to be

a) a motive, but not an emotion.

b) an emotion, but not a motive.

c) an emotion and a motive.

d) impossible to study.

e) a topic not worthy of study.

125. In Sternberg's model of love, the desire to maintain a relationship through good times and bad times is called

a) love.

b) passion.

c) intimacy.

d) commitment.

e) decision.

126. Dana and Fox have a relationship in which they have intense sexual desire for each other. Their relationship is characterized by which component of love in the triangular model?

a) Romance

b) Intimacy

c) Decision

d) Commitment

e) Passion

127. Nancy and Jack married a week after they met at a gambling casino. At the time, they knew almost nothing about each other, and neither was eager to share personal thoughts and feelings. Both felt that the sexual attraction between them was so strong that they were fated to be together forever. According to Sternberg's triangular model, what type of love do Nancy and Jack have?

a) Nonlove

b) Consummate love

c) Empty love

d) Fatuous love

e) Romantic love

128. Paul and Joanna have a love relationship characterized by high levels of intimacy, passion, and commitment. Using the triangular model, their love would be described as

a) romantic love.

b) infatuation.

c) fatuous love.

d) consummate love.

e) companionate love.

129. According to Sternberg, the strongest relationships are those characterized by

a) high levels of all three components of love in at least one partner.

b) high levels of commitment, regardless of levels of intimacy or passion.

c) high levels of commitment and intimacy, regardless of levels of passion.

d) a high level of commitment by both partners.

e) partners who have love triangles that are closely matched.

130. Which brain structure might best be described as an "emotional watchdog"?

a) Hippocampus

b) Amygdala

c) Hypothalamus

d) Corpus callosum

e) Thalamus

131. Which of the following statements is true about the role of the amygdala in the processing of emotions?

a) The amygdala becomes active in response to threatening or fearful stimuli.

b) When the amygdala is electrically stimulated, the most common emotional reaction is sadness.

c) The amygdala plays a role only in the processing of negative emotions.

d) Brain imaging indicates that the amygdala shows no activity at all when people are exposed to erotic photographs.

e) The amygdala controls the facial expressions that express emotion.

132. Facial expression of emotions is controlled by the

a) cerebellum.

b) cerebral cortex.

c) hypothalamus.

d) hippocampus.

e) limbic system.

133. Of the following emotions that Ken experiences, which is most likely to be processed in his right hemisphere?

a) Happiness

b) Surprise

c) Excitement

d) Calmness

e) Disgust

134. In terms of prefrontal activation associated with emotions, left hemisphere is to ________ emotions as right hemisphere is to ________ emotions.

a) mimicked; genuine

b) weak; strong

c) strong; weak

d) negative; positive

e) positive; negative

135. Besides the cerebral cortex, the brain structures most involved in the brain's control of emotions are in the

a) reticular activating system.

b) limbic system.

c) autonomic nervous system.

d) endocrine system.

e) somatic nervous system.

136. The James-Lange theory of emotion suggests that emotions

a) cause bodily reactions.

b) follow bodily reactions.

c) are not related to bodily reactions.

d) occur simultaneously with bodily reactions.

e) involve arousal and labeling of its causes.

137. According to the James-Lange theory of emotions, Brenda is feeling scared while walking home alone on a dark night because

a) she feels "goose bumps."

b) she feels "goose bumps" and experiences fear at the same time.

c) she feels "goose bumps," takes into consideration the surrounding darkness, and therefore interprets the "goose bumps" as a sign of fear.

d) she rationally analyzes the situation, decides that there is a reason to be afraid, and then feels "goose bumps," which adds to her fear.

e) her amygdala interprets the darkness as something to fear, which prompts her to have "goose bumps," before she is able to rationally analyze the situation.

138. Which theory of emotion suggests that emotion and bodily reactions occur almost simultaneously?

a) James-Lange

b) Two-factor

c) Cannon-Bard

d) Facial-feedback

e) Dual-pathway

139. The two-factor theory of emotion suggests that emotions

a) occur simultaneously with bodily arousal.

b) follow distinct bodily changes that determine how we feel.

c) precede bodily arousal.

d) result from a combination of physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation.

e) cause bodily arousal.

140. Selena is reading a book when she feels a tear roll down her cheek. At the same time, a feeling of sadness overwhelms her. This scenario is most in line with which theory of emotion?

a) Robert Zajonc's model

b) The two-factor model

c) The James-Lange theory

d) LeDoux's dual-pathway model

e) The Cannon-Bard theory

141. Based on his study exposing subjects to Japanese ideographs, Zajonc suggests that liking or disliking sometimes occurs through

a) a state of general arousal, accompanied by cognitive appraisal.

b) a state of general arousal only.

c) cognitive appraisal only.

d) activation of the sympathetic nervous system.

e) exposure to a stimulus without cognitive appraisal.

142. Who formulated the dual-pathway model of fear?

a) Cannon-Bard

b) James-Lange

c) Schachter

d) LeDoux

e) Zajonc

143. In the dual-pathway model of fear, where is stimulus information first processed?

a) Thalamus

b) Hypothalamus

c) Amygdala

d) Cortex

e) Spinal cord

144. In the dual-pathway model of fear, the "high road" leads to the ________, and the "low road" leads to the ________.

a) hypothalamus; cortex

b) cortex; amygdala

c) amygdala; cortex

d) cortex; hypothalamus

e) hypothalamus; amygdala

145. Driving along a dark, rural road, Norma sees a deer jump across the road in front of her. Norma experiences physiological arousal, her heart pounding and her hands trembling. Norma realizes that she is aroused and says, "I feel so excited. It's probably fright due to the sudden appearance of the deer." This characterization of Norma's emotional experience is most consistent with which theoretical model of emotion?

a) James-Lange

b) Two-factor

c) Dual-pathway

d) Cannon-Bard

e) Triangular

146. Vonda is exceptionally skilled at perceiving emotions in others. Vonda has a high level of

a) need for affiliation.

b) empathy.

c) sympathy.

d) extraversion.

e) self-actualization.

147. Curlee has a good ability to recognize emotions in herself and in others. She is also able to manage her emotions effectively. Curlee appears to have high levels of

a) emotional intelligence.

b) multiple intelligences.

c) emotional agility.

d) interpersonal intelligence.

e) need for affiliation.

148. Empathy is most likely to play a role in which aspect of emotional intelligence?

a) Managing your emotions

b) Motivating yourself

c) Knowing your emotions

d) Handling relationships

e) Recognizing emotions in others

149. Initial research indicates that emotional intelligence predicts all of the following EXCEPT

a) high IQ scores.

b) higher GPAs in college.

c) greater life satisfaction.

d) marital success.

e) emotional well-being.

150. The technical name for a lie detector test is a(n)

a) electroencephalograph.

b) electrocardiograph.

c) polygraph.

d) quantitative arousal test.

e) functional MRI.

151. All of the following are measured during a polygraph EXCEPT

a) electrical reactivity of the skin.

b) respiration.

c) heart rate.

d) patterns of arousal.

e) lying.

152. What does a polygraph test measure?

a) Intentional lying

b) Facial expressions associated with lying

c) Unconscious deception

d) Patterns of bodily arousal

e) The facial-feedback effect

153. Summarize the various theories of emotion.

154. Cognitive theorists suggest that anger is prompted by

a) physiological arousal.

b) frustrating or provocative situations.

c) instinctual impulses for aggression.

d) situations that represent unresolved conflicts from the past.

e) a person's reaction to frustrating situations.

155. Jerome gets cut off by another driver on his comm