PSYC Psychology Chapter 3 answers complete solutions for any quiz and exam

PSYC Psychology Chapter 3 answers complete solutions for any quiz and exam

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1. The process by which we receive, transform, and process stimuli is

a) sensation.

b) perception.

c) transduction.

d) reduction.

e) psychophysics.

2. The study of how physical sources of stimulation are related to our experience of these stimuli is termed

a) sensation.

b) perception.

c) biophysics.

d) psychophysics.

e) sensory adaptation.

3. Which German scientist is credited with initiating the scientific approach to psychology with his book Elements of Psychophysics?

a) Ernst Weber

b) Torsten Wiesel

c) Gustav Fechner

d) Max Wertheimer

e) Wilhelm Wundt

4. Dr. Dawson's research program is concerned with how a person's experience changes as the intensity of a sound is increased. Dr. Dawson is studying

a) psychophysics.

b) sensation.

c) perception.

d) transformation.

e) biophysics.

5. The smallest amount of a stimulus that a person can reliably detect is called the

a) absolute threshold.

b) difference threshold.

c) just-noticeable difference.

d) just-noticeable threshold.

e) constant threshold.

6. When the house was quiet, Rhonda, lying in bed, was able to hear the babysitter's watch ticking in the living room, from a distance of 15 feet away, about 50 percent of the time. But when the babysitter moved from the chair to the couch, another foot away, Rhonda was no longer able to hear the watch. The fact that Rhonda can hear the detect the ticking of the watch from that distance signals a(n)

a) difference threshold.

b) just-noticeable difference.

c) perceptual set.

d) absolute threshold.

e) subliminal threshold.

7. Which of the following is a test for an absolute threshold for taste?

a) Detecting a bitter taste in broccoli because one is a supertaster

b) Detecting a difference in tastes between two spots on the tongue that are one-eighth of an inch apart

c) Detecting one teaspoon of sugar dissolved in two gallons of water

d) Detecting the number and type of lemons that were used to make a pitcher of lemonade

e) Detecting the sweetness of a fruit while blindfolded

8. The absolute threshold for vision involves being able to see the flame of a candle flickering on a dark, clear night from a distance of about

a) 30 feet.

b) 300 feet.

c) 3 miles.

d) 30 miles.

e) 300 miles.

9. The ability to feel the wing of a bee falling on one's cheek from about 1 centimeter away is a(n)

a) difference threshold

b) example of subliminal perception.

c) just-noticeable difference.

d) absolute threshold for touch.

e) example of sensory adaptation.

10. The minimal difference between two stimuli that people can reliably detect is

a) the absolute threshold.

b) the difference threshold.

c) the perceptual threshold.

d) the sensitivity threshold.

e) Weber's constant.

11. Weber's constant for the volume of sound is 1/10. A car alarm is sounding off at 60 decibels. After 5 minutes, it is programmed to get louder. How loud does it have to be for people to perceive it as louder?

a) At least 61 decibels

b) At least 62 decibels

c) At least 65 decibels

d) At least 66 decibels

e) At least 70 decibels

12. "Make the TV louder," said Paula. "I did," said Jack, pointing at the remote. "Doesn't sound louder to me," said Paula. "Does to me," said Jack. Jack is failing to consider the discrepancy between his ______ and Paula's.

a) Weber's constant

b) subliminal difference

c) difference threshold

d) absolute threshold

e) absolute difference

13. Weber's law suggests that

a) absolute threshold measurements underestimate true perceptual sensitivity.

b) difference thresholds are a constant proportion of the original stimulus.

c) difference thresholds are a constant quantity.

d) difference thresholds decrease as stimuli increase.

e) difference thresholds increase as stimuli decrease.

14. With reference to Weber's constants, people are LEAST sensitive to changes in which of the following?

a) Pitch of sounds

b) Saltiness of food

c) Heaviness of weights

d) Brightness of lights

e) Odor

15. A recipe requires 10 grams of salt. Since Weber's constant for saltiness is 1/5, how much more salt must a chef add to make the recipe noticeably saltier?

a) 0.2 gram

b) 2 grams

c) 5 grams

d) 10.2 grams

e) 10.5 grams

16. According to Weber's law, people are most sensitive to changes in which sensation?

a) The loudness of sounds

b) The heaviness of weight

c) The saltiness of food

d) The brightness of lights

e) The pitch of sounds

17. The idea that the threshold for sensing a stimulus depends not only on the properties of the stimulus itself but also on the level of background stimulation is explained by

a) Weber's law.

b) dual-process theory.

c) opponent-process theory.

d) signal-detection theory.

e) sensory adaptation.

18. Which of the following is a psychological factor that influences a person's threshold for determining a visual signal?

a) The sensitivity of her visual system

b) Her level of fatigue

c) Her physical health

d) Her level of alertness

e) Her level of motivation

19. If you are expecting a telephone call, you may be more likely to notice the telephone ringing while you are in the shower than if you were not expecting a call. This example is an illustration of

a) signal-detection theory.

b) Weber's law.

c) sensory adaptation.

d) opponent-process theory.

e) dual-process theory.

20. Roger was studying psychology in his quiet bedroom when there was a loud "pop" in the apartment next door. Later, when the police asked him whether he heard a gunshot, he said, "No, I guess I was concentrating too hard on my studies." According to Roger, the fact that he did not detect the signal is due mostly to

a) the properties of the stimulus.

b) the level of background stimulation.

c) his physical condition.

d) psychological factors

e) the sensitivity of his hearing.

21. The phenomenon whereby sensory systems become less sensitive to unchanging stimuli is called

a) discrimination threshold shift.

b) sensory adaptation.

c) signal-detection.

d) threshold degradation.

e) psychophysics.

22. Other factors being equal, which sensory stimulus is LEAST likely to lead to sensory adaptation?

a) The wail of a loud car alarm

b) The sound of a grandfather clock ticking

c) The offensive odors of a cattle farm

d) The pressure of wearing a new bracelet on one's wrist

e) The temperature of water when one enters a pool

23. When Harold first enters his swimming pool, the water feels uncomfortably cold. Five minutes later, the water feels comfortable to Harold. This is an example of

a) transduction.

b) sensory adaptation.

c) Weber's law.

d) signal-detection theory.

e) just-noticeable difference.

24. Differentiate between absolute and difference thresholds.

25. Visible light consists of wavelengths of approximately

a) 100-550 nanometers.

b) 200-650 nanometers.

c) 300-750 nanometers.

d) 400-850 nanometers.

e) 500-950 nanometers.

26. Which color of the spectrum has the shortest wavelength?

a) Violet

b) Red

c) Yellow

d) Indigo

e) Green

27. When you scratch your eye, the part that is actually scratched is the

a) pupil.

b) iris.

c) lens.

d) fovea.

e) cornea.

28. The muscle that regulates the amount of light entering the eye is the

a) lens.

b) cornea.

c) pupil.

d) iris.

e) fovea.

29. Dr. Rhoden conducts animal experiments on visual perception. Rhoden wants to stop the animal's pupil from changing size, so he paralyzes the

a) cornea.

b) iris.

c) lens.

d) retina.

e) pupil.

30. Which part of your eye gives your eye its color?

a) The cornea

b) The iris

c) The pupil

d) The fovea

e) The retina

31. Which of the following describes the pupil?

a) An opening through which light enters the eye

b) A part of the eye that adjusts its shape to view objects at varying distances

c) A transparent covering at the front of the eye

d) A part of the eye that contains the photoreceptors

e) A structure responsible for peripheral vision

32. The part of the eye that changes shape to adjust for an object's distance is the

a) lens.

b) pupil.

c) cornea.

d) retina.

e) iris.

33. The photoreceptors, or sensory cells, of the human eye are located in the

a) iris.

b) lens.

c) cornea.

d) pupil.

e) retina.

34. Only rods allow us to see

a) in dim light.

b) colors.

c) fine detail.

d) under bright illumination.

e) moving objects.

Type: conceptual

35. In vision, the sensory receptors are called

a) ganglion cells.

b) hair-cell receptors.

c) bipolar cells.

d) optic nerves.

e) rods and cones.

36. The ratio of rods to cones is approximately

a) 10 to 1.

b) 1 to 10.

c) 20 to 1.

d) 1 to 20.

e) 1 to 1.

37. Which of the following is true of cones?

a) They are responsible for peripheral vision.

b) They are more sensitive to light than are rods.

c) They provide detailed vision.

d) They function in dim light.

e) They allow some animals, such as bats, to see at night.

Type: conceptual

38. Since they can see only during the daylight, some birds must return to roost as darkness approaches. This is because their eyes contain

a) cones, but no rods.

b) rods, but no cones.

c) inefficient cones.

d) inefficient rods.

e) no rods or cones

39. To see a dimly lit object at night, the image must fall on your

a) fovea.

b) blind spot.

c) cones.

d) rods.

e) optic nerve.

40. The nerve cells in the back of the eye that transmit neural impulses in response to chemical changes in the rods and cones are

a) bipolar cells.

b) optic cells.

c) foveal cells.

d) retinal cells.

e) ganglion cells.

41. The optic nerve is made up of the ________ of the ________ cells.

a) axons; bipolar

b) dendrites; bipolar

c) axons; ganglion

d) dendrites; ganglion

e) dendrites; optic

42. The optic nerve transmits information to the visual cortex in the brain via the

a) basal ganglia.

b) thalamus.

c) hypothalamus.

d) hippocampus.

e) amygdala.

43. What is true about the blind spot?

a) It contains rods but not cones.

b) It contains cones but not rods.

c) It contains both rods and cones.

d) It's the part of the retina where the optic nerve leaves the eye.

e) It's the part of the retina where light is converted into neural signals.

44. For the sharpest vision, the image of an object should be focused on the

a) fovea.

b) blind spot.

c) optic chiasm.

d) optic nerve.

e) retina.

45. Who won the Nobel Prize for discovering that the visual cortex contains nerve cells that respond only when an animal is shown a line with a particular orientation?

a) Ewald Hering

b) Hermann von Helmholtz and Thomas Young

c) Ernst Weber

d) Gustav Theodor Fechner

e) David Hubel and Torsten Wiesel

46. Neurons that respond to specific characteristics of the visual stimulus are called

a) photoreceptors.

b) ganglion cells.

c) bipolar cells.

d) optic neurons.

e) feature detectors.

47. The role of feature detectors is to

a) respond to specific objects such as a house.

b) detect color stimuli.

c) detect black and white stimuli.

d) respond to very simple stimuli such as a horizontal line.

e) regulate the size of the pupil.

48. Trichromatic theory suggests that

a) the retina has one type of color receptor that responds differently to each color.

b) the retina has two types of color receptors that respond in a different manner for each color.

c) the retina has three types of color receptors—red, green, and blue-violet.

d) color results from opposing processes involving three sets of color receptors, red-green, blue-yellow, and black-white.

e) color vision is a function of brain activity.

49. Red, green, and blue-violet light can be combined to create any color of the spectrum. This has been interpreted as supporting

a) trichromatic theory of color vision.

b) opponent-process theory of color vision.

c) feature detection theory of color vision.

d) color constancy theory of color vision.

e) the existence of afterimages.

50. In color vision, blue-violet cones are most sensitive to ________ wavelengths, red cones to ________ wavelengths, and green cones to ________ wavelengths.

a) short; middle; long

b) short; long; middle

c) long; short; middle

d) long; middle; short

e) middle; short; long

51. An object that reflects primarily long-wavelength light would most stimulate which category of cone?

a) blue-violet

b) green

c) red

d) yellow

e) black-white

52. Regarding the theories of color vision, which of the following is true?

a) Trichromatic theory is supported by the behavior of cells lying between the cones and the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex.

b) Opponent-process theory is supported at the receptor level.

c) Most authorities today suggest that color vision includes elements of both trichromatic and opponentprocess theories.

d) Trichromatic theory is based on Hering's work with afterimages.

e) Opponent-process theory suggests that the eyes have four types of color receptors.

53. Alice has the job of lighting director for the school play. She wants the Cowardly Lion to be bathed in yellow light. In front of her is a console with three buttons: red, blue, and green. Which ones would give her yellow light?

a) Blue and red

b) Blue and green

c) Red, blue, and green

d) Red and green

e) No combination of any of the three

54. Negative afterimages provide support for which theory of color vision?

a) Trichromatic theory

b) Feature detection theory

c) Color constancy theory

d) D. Young-Helmholtz theory

e) Opponent-process theory

55. Regarding colorblindness, which of the following statements is true?

a) More women than men suffer from red-green color-blindness.

b) Blue-yellow colorblindness is more common than red-green colorblindness.

c) People who are dichromats can perceive the world only in shades of gray.

d) About one in every forty thousand people is completely colorblind.

e) Red-green colorblindness appears to be carried on the Y chromosome.

56. What is the most common form of colorblindness?

a) Blue-green

b) Red-yellow

c) Red-green

d) Blue-yellow

e) Blue-red

57. People who see only in black and white are called

a) monochromats.

b) dichromats.

c) trichromats.

d) unichromats.

e) partially colorblind.

58. Describe how the eyes process light.

59. Summarize the two major theories of color vision.

60. Kim wrote a term paper about the sense of hearing. She might have titled her paper

a) All About Audition

b) Knowing Everything There Is to Know About Kinesthesis

c) Valuing the Vestibular Sense

d) Facts of Olfaction.

e) Thinking About Telepathy

61. Which physical property of a sound wave is represented by its height?

a) Pitch

b) Frequency

c) Timbre

d) Audition

e) Amplitude

62. Rebecca tells Tom that he is singing "off pitch." Rebecca is referring to which physical property of sound?

a) Amplitude

b) Frequency

c) Loudness

d) Speed

e) Decibel

63. Humans can hear frequencies between

a) 100,000 and 200,000 cycles per second.

b) 50,000 and 100,000 cycles per second.

c) 20,000 and 50,000 cycles per second.

d) 20 and 20,000 cycles per second.

e) 1 and 20 cycles per second.

64. Which of the following statements is true about sound waves?

a) Sound waves travel faster than light waves.

b) The frequency of sound waves determines their perceived loudness.

c) Humans hear by sensing sound waves that result from changes in the pressure of air or water.

d) Pitch, the perception of how high or low a sound seems, corresponds to the amplitude of the sound wave.

e) Sound waves can travel through the empty reaches of outer space.

65. In sound waves, height of the wave is to ________ as number of complete waves is to ________.

a) pitch; frequency

b) frequency; pitch

c) amplitude; decibel

d) decibel; amplitude

e) amplitude; frequency

66. Women's voices are generally higher than men's voices because their vocal cords tend to be ________ and to vibrate ________.

a) shorter; more slowly.

b) longer; faster.

c) longer; more slowly.

d) shorter; faster.

e) thinner; more slowly.

67. In what order do the ossicles vibrate during hearing?

a) Anvil, hammer, stirrup

b) Stirrup, hammer, anvil

c) Stirrup, anvil, hammer

d) Hammer, stirrup, anvil

e) Hammer, anvil, stirrup

68. Which of the following best describes the organ of Corti?

a) An auditory receptor that transforms vibration of sound waves into neural impulses

b) A gelatinous structure in the cochlea that contains the auditory receptors

c) A sheet of connective tissue separating the outer ear from the middle ear

d) A shell-shaped organ in the inner ear that contains sensory receptors for hearing

e) A collection of tiny bones in the middle ear that vibrate in response to vibrations from the eardrum

69. The brain can detect differences in arrival times to the ears of as little as

a) 1 second.

b) 1/10 of a second.

c) 1/100 of a second.

d) 1/1,000 of a second.

e) 1/10,000 of a second.

70. The belief that the experience of pitch is related to alternate firing of groups of neurons along the basilar membrane is known as

a) the volley principle.

b) place theory.

c) gate-control theory.

d) frequency theory.

e) the succession principle.

71. The basis of the place theory of pitch detection is that pitch is determined by the place that vibrates the most along the

a) eardrum.

b) basilar membrane.

c) oval window.

d) auditory nerve.

e) ossicles.

72. High-frequency sounds cause the greatest vibration of

a) hair cells in the middle of the basilar membrane.

b) hair cells nearest the oval window.

c) hair cells nearest the auditory nerve.

d) hair cells farthest down the basilar membrane from the oval window.

e) the membrane of the eardrum.

73. Which theory of pitch is used to account for the perception of sounds between 1,000 and 4,000 cycles per second?

a) Place theory

b) Trichromatic theory

c) Frequency theory

d) Opponent-process theory

e) Volley principle

74. Place theory and frequency theory explain how we detect ________ pitches, and volley principle explains how we detect ________ pitches.

a) mid-range; high and low

b) high and low; mid-range

c) mid-range and high; low

d) mid-range and low; high

e) low; mid-range and high

75. Approximately ________ Americans have hearing problems, and approximately ________ are deaf.

a) 2 million; 100,000

b) 5 million; 200,000

c) 10 million; 1 million

d) 30 million; 2 million

e) 50 million; 5 million

76. Sound from which of the following should produce the most danger to hearing upon brief exposure?

a) A ringing telephone

b) A jet airplane

c) A lawn mower

d) A jack hammer

e) Headphones

77. The loudness of normal conversation is about how many decibels?

a) 25

b) 50

c) 75

d) 100

e) 125

78. Marlee's right eardrum was punctured in an accident when she was three years old. She is deaf in her right eardrum but is helped with a hearing aid that amplifies sound waves. What type of deafness does Marlee have?

a) Nerve

b) Continuity

c) Closure

d) Subliminal

e) Conduction

79. Conduction deafness is to ________ as nerve deafness is to ________.

a) outer ear; inner ear

b) inner ear; outer ear

c) middle ear; inner ear

d) inner ear; middle ear

e) middle ear; outer ear

80. Regarding hearing loss, which of the following is true?

a) Cochlear implants can help correct damage to the auditory nerve.

b) Permanent hearing loss results from prolonged exposure to sounds of at least 60 decibels.

c) People with conduction deafness cannot benefit from hearing aids.

d) Hearing loss in later life is inevitable.

e) Most hearing loss in later life is the result of years of abuse from loud music and noise.

81. Summarize the three major theories of pitch perception.

82. Which of the following are the chemical senses?

a) Touch and smell

b) Touch and taste

c) Touch, taste, and kinesthesis

d) Taste, smell, and kinesthesis

e) Taste and smell

83. Olfaction refers to the sense of

a) taste.

b) touch.

c) seeing.

d) hearing.

e) smell.

84. Which of the following statements is true about olfaction?

a) Human nasal passageways contain about 1,000 odor receptors.

b) Human odor receptors are capable of sensing about 1,000,000 different substances.

c) All odor molecules have the same shape.

d) Smell is the only sense in which sensory information does not go through the thalamus on its way to the cerebral cortex.

e) The intensity of an odor depends on the size of a substance's odor molecules.

85. All of the following senses go through the thalamus on the way to the cortex EXCEPT

a) vision.

b) smell.

c) hearing.

d) taste.

e) touch.

86. Which sense has connections with several structures in the limbic system and is especially effective at stimulating emotional memories?

a) Smell

b) Taste

c) Hearing

d) Vision

e) Touch

87. Which of the following is(are) responsible for carrying impulses from the odor receptors in the nose to the brain?

a) Olfactory bulb

b) Olfactory nerve

c) Taste buds

d) Pheromones

e) Vestibular organ

88. Renee is smelling a rose. Its odor's chemical molecules lock into the odor receptors in Renee's nose. The resulting neural impulses then follow which path?

a) Olfactory bulb to olfactory nerve to olfactory cortex in the parietal lobe

b) Olfactory nerve to olfactory bulb to olfactory cortex in the temporal lobe

c) Olfactory nerve to thalamus to olfactory cortex in the temporal lobe

d) Olfactory nerve to olfactory bulb to olfactory cortex in the occipital lobe

e) Olfactory nerve to olfactory cortex to olfactory bulb in the occipital lobe

89. Various species emit chemical substances that play important roles in many behaviors. These substances are called

a) hormones.

b) pheromones.

c) neurotransmitters.

d) perfumes.

e) olfactions.

90. Which of the following is true about pheromones?

a) Pheromones are human sexual hormones.

b) Humans lack the receptors needed to sense pheromones.

c) Pheromones are not associated with sexual behavior in animals.

d) Scientists have found that pheromones influence sexual attraction in humans.

e) The role of pheromones in human sexual behavior remains unclear.

91. In studies cited in the text, when women were exposed to male sweat, what were the findings?

a) Some complained of nausea; others became sexually aroused.

b) Some felt relaxed; others complained of nausea.

c) Some felt relaxed; others became sexually aroused.

d) All became nauseated.

e) All became sexually aroused.

92. All of the following are basic tastes EXCEPT

a) sweet.

b) salty.

c) sour.

d) savory.

e) bitter.

93. The taste receptors are called

a) taste cells.

b) taste buds.

c) gustatory nerves.

d) taste nodes.

e) gustatory nodes.

94. Receptor cells for which sense regenerate within a week to ten days?

a) Vision

b) Audition

c) Taste

d) Touch

e) Olfaction

95. Regarding the sense of taste, which of the following statements is true?

a) People without tongues are unable to sense taste.

b) The receptors for taste are located mostly on the tongue.

c) When taste receptors are "killed off" by hot foods, they remain inactive.

d) Genetic factors do not play a large role in either taste sensitivity or taste preferences.

e) Pigs are unable to taste sweetness, whereas cats are able to do so.

96. Compared to people with average taste sensitivity, people who are "supertasters" have

a) different types of taste buds.

b) more sensitive taste buds.

c) a very dense network of taste buds.

d) bigger taste buds.

e) fewer specialized taste buds.

97. Approximately what percent of people are "supertasters"?

a) 5 percent

b) 10 percent

c) 25 percent

d) 40 percent

e) 50 percent

98. Other factors being equal, which person is most likely to be a "supertaster"?

a) Yuan, an Asian man

b) Yuna, an Asian woman

c) Lenny, a European-American man

d) Betty, a European-American woman

e) Gaspar, a Hispanic-American man

99. Which of the following statements is true about the skin senses?

a) Sensations for hotness are produced by stimulation of specialized receptors for heat.

b) All skin receptors can respond to more than one type of stimulation.

c) There are about ten thousand receptors for touch and pressure distributed throughout the body.

d) Sensory information is transmitted from the spinal cord to the somatosensory cortex.

e) All receptors for pain are located in the skin.

100. Receptors for which of the following are located deepest in the skin?

a) Hot

b) Cold

c) Pain

d) Light touch

e) Pressure

101. Sensations of hotness result from

a) stimulation of hot receptors.

b) stimulation of warm receptors.

c) stimulation of cold receptors.

d) simultaneous stimulation of warm and cold receptors.

e) stimulation of pain receptors.

102. How are the nerve fibers that carry pain signals different from those that carry signals for warmth, cold, and touch?

a) The pain nerve fibers are longer and faster.

b) The pain nerve fibers are thinner and faster.

c) The pain nerve fibers are thicker and slower.

d) The pain nerve fibers are thinner and slower.

e) The pain nerve fibers are shorter and faster.

103. Which of the following is true about acupuncture?

a) It is a traditional Japanese healing art.

b) It has been shown by research to be an effective way to relieve migraine headaches.

c) It appears to be no more effective than fake acupuncture, in which needles are inserted superficially in random places in the body.

d) Researchers theorize that acupuncture works through the release of dopamine, caused by the stimulation of acupuncture points.

e) The practice of acupuncture began approximately 80 years ago.

104. Compared to pain fibers, fibers that carry signals about temperature and touch are

a) thinner and faster.

b) thicker and faster.

c) thinner and slower.

d) thicker and slower.

e) small and reach the brain faster.

105. In response to pain, the brain signals the release of

a) dopamine.

b) acetylcholine.

c) endorphins.

d) norepinephrine.

e) serotonin.

106. What is kinesthesis?

a) The sense that allows you to maintain your balance

b) The sense that lets you know where your body parts are

c) The sense that informs you about the movement of your head in relation to the external world

d) The sense that transmits messages of pain to your brain

e) The sense that monitors the position of your head in space

107. Receptors for kinesthesis are located in

a) joints, ligaments, and muscles.

b) the skin and hair.

c) the inner and middle ear.

d) the eyes.

e) the mouth and nose.

108. Charlene is fastening the clasp of her necklace at the back of her neck. She is aware of exactly where her fingers are without seeing them because of which sense?

a) Vestibular

b) Olfaction

c) Audition

d) Kinesthesis

e) Touch

109. Austin experiences motion sickness. From which two senses has Austin received conflicting information?

a) Kinesthesis and visual

b) Kinesthesis and olfactory

c) Vestibular and visual

d) Vestibular and olfactory

e) Audition and olfactory

110. Which sense monitors the position of your body in space and helps maintain balance?

a) Vestibular

b) Kinesthesis

c) Proprioception

d) Audition

e) Olfaction

111. Which of your senses takes in information from the movement of fluid in the semicircular canals?

a) Audition

b) Olfaction

c) Kinesthesis

d) Taste

e) Vestibular

112. Summarize the principles of the gate-control theory of pain.

113. The process by which the brain interprets stimuli and turns them into meaningful representations of the external world is

a) sensation.

b) perception.

c) attention.

d) memory.

e) audition.

114. Which of the following statements about perception is true?

a) Perception represents the brain's attempt to make sense of the information coming in through the senses.

b) Perception is a reactive process.

c) Perceptions accurately reflect reality.

d) The area of perception that has captured the most research attention is auditory perception.

e) Perception is independent of expectations.

115. When you perceive something, what is the first step you take?

a) Sensing

b) Learning

c) Memorizing

d) Attending

e) Thinking

116. ______ consists of limiting attention to certain stimuli and filtering out other stimuli.

a) Sensation

b) Perception

c) Selective attention

d) Perceptual set

e) Habituation

117. Which of the following infants is demonstrating habituation?

a) Pedro, who is intently concentrating on the red circle on the bumper of his crib and ignoring the other colors

b) Robin, who was intently focused on the sound of the car alarm outside until she tuned it out and fell asleep

c) Harry, who keeps crying at the top of his lungs until he is offered a bottle

d) Neely, who smiles at the sight of her big brother's face but not at the sight of other children

e) Seth, who is so used to sleeping on his stomach that he cries when placed in the crib on his back

118. Who conducted a classic study demonstrating perceptual set?

a) Hubel and Wiesel

b) Hering

c) Young and von Helmholtz

d) Bruner and Minturn

e) Müller and Lyer

119. The tendency for our perceptions to be influenced by our expectations or preconceptions is called

a) perceptual set.

b) selective attention.

c) divided attention.

d) perceptual constancy.

e) habituation.

120. In a research experiment, participants are shown a series of drawings before seeing an ambiguous picture that could be perceived as a rat or a man. Group 1 sees drawings of animals, and group 2 sees drawings of humans. Perceptual set suggests which of the following results when participants are shown the ambiguous picture?

a) Both groups will report seeing a man.

b) Both groups will report seeing a rat.

c) Group 1 will report seeing a rat, and group 2 will report seeing a man.

d) Group 1 will report seeing a man, and group 2 will report seeing a rat.

e) Neither group will see a rat or a man, since the picture is ambiguous.

121. Five friends were hiking in the woods. After a couple of hours, when they reached a high spot, they could barely make out the details of a small town below. Which one of them demonstrated a perceptual set?

a) Alex, who was tired and who said, "Looking at the number of trees from here to there, I would say it's a distance of about another five miles."

b) Bob, who was hot and sweaty and who said, "I hope there's a place to get something cold to drink."

c) Chad, who was hungry and who said, "I think I see a Pizza sign."

d) Doug, whose shoes got soaked in a puddle and who said, "It'll be great if there's a store where I can buy a cheap pair of sneakers."

e) Edward, who was anxious and who said, "Who cares what's down there. I think it's time we turned around and started to walk home."

122. Which method of processing visual information involves assembling specific features of shapes to form patterns?

a) Bottom-up processing

b) Bottom-down processing

c) Top-down processing

d) Bottom-top processing

e) Up-down processing

123. When you are presented with the following visual information, "A," your brain sees a series of lines and angles in a particular format and interprets this visual information as the letter A. This is an example of which concept from perception?

a) Perceptual set

b) Bottom-up processing

c) Top-down processing

d) Selective attention

e) Habituation

124. Which term best captures the meaning of Gestalt?

a) Figure

b) Ground

c) Whole

d) Perception

e) Parts

125. The Gestalt laws of perceptual organization refer to

a) bottom-up processing.

b) top-down processing.

c) bottom-up and top-down processing.

d) figure-ground and grouping.

e) perceptual constancies.

126. Which of the following is true about figure and ground?

a) It's always easy to tell which is the figure and which is the ground.

b) The ground usually has a distinctive shape, whereas the figure does not.

c) An outline clearly defines where the figure ends and the ground begins.

d) What one sees in an ambiguous figure depends on how one organizes one’s perceptual experiences.

e) Once one focuses on one part of an ambiguous figure, it becomes impossible to switch back and forth.

127. The Gestalt principle of similarity was at work in which of the following?

a) At the playground, Edna saw many children at play. She perceived them as three groups according to their location: one group of children were near and on the slides, one was by the swings, and a third was by the sandbox.

b) Frank the lifeguard was watching a group of 7-year-old boy and girl campers swim in the lake. Because all the girls wore white bathing caps, Frank perceived them all as one group, even though they were not in the same place.

c) Even though there were 24 dominos laid down on the table end-to-end, Gregory perceived them to be one group because they appeared to represent an uninterrupted series.

d) In spite of the fact that the car parked in front was obstructing part of the house, Irena still perceived the whole shape of the house, just as though the car were not there.

e) Jared looked up and saw six birds flying above in the sky. He perceived them as two distinct groups because three birds were moving in one direction and three birds were moving together in another direction.

128. Rico is shown the following stimulus: X. When asked what he sees, Rico reports that he sees two intersecting lines, rather than saying that he sees four separate lines. Rico's response demonstrates which

Gestalt principle?

a) Closure

b) Proximity

c) Similarity

d) Connectedness

e) Continuity

129. Which Gestalt principle describes the tendency to perceive objects as belonging together when they are close to one another?

a) Connectedness

b) Continuity

c) Proximity

d) Similarity

e) Closure

130. Grouping disconnected pieces of information into a meaningful whole describes the Gestalt principle of

a) similarity.

b) closure.

c) connectedness.

d) proximity.

e) continuity.

131. The tendency to perceive properties of an object as remaining the same despite changes in its retinal image is called

a) Gestalt organization.

b) perceptual constancy.

c) perceptual congruity.

d) perceptual stability.

e) closure.

132. Tony observes an oval bowl on a table from several different perspectives. Although the image on his retina changes, he continues to perceive the bowl as oval. Tony's experience is an example of which constancy?

a) Brightness

b) Textural

c) Size

d) Interpositional

e) Shape

133. The blackbird in the sunlight reflected more light than the white duck in the shade, yet Brenda perceived the duck to be lighter than the blackbird because of which of the following?

a) The Ponzo illusion

b) Brightness constancy

c) Relative clarity

d) Retinal disparity

e) Texture gradient

134. Depth cues that require the use of both eyes are called

a) monocular cues.

b) binocular cues.

c) stereoscopic cues.

d) double vision.

e) convergence cues.

135. Brenda has only one eye. Which of the following depth cues is she unable to use?

a) Relative size

b) Retinal disparity

c) Interposition

d) Texture gradient

e) Continuity

136. Muscular tension caused by your eyes turning inward provides the depth cue of

a) retinal disparity.

b) binocularity disparity.

c) convergence.

d) divergence.

e) interposition.

137. Which of the following is an example of the depth cue of relative clarity?

a) From a distance, tall buildings appear farther away when viewed on a smoggy day than on a fair day.

b) The texture of sand beneath your feet is more detailed than the texture of sand 30 feet in front of you.

c) Lines on the sides of the road appear to come together in the distance.

d) Two buildings are known to be the same size, but the one that is closer appears larger.

e) In a photograph, patterns of light and dark create the appearance of three-dimensional objects, even though the photo is flat.

138. Which of the following is a monocular cue for depth perception?

a) Retinal disparity

b) Convergence

c) Clairvoyance

d) Linear perspective

e) Stroboscopic movement

139. At the museum, Leonard stared at a painting of a forest, where the artist used detail to create a sense of depth. The trees that were "closer" appeared rough, with greatly detailed leaves and bark, whereas the ones that were "farther away" appeared smooth and with few details. Which depth cue did the painter use?

a) Retinal disparity

b) Interposition

c) Relative clarity

d) Shadowing

e) Texture gradient

140. Which of the following leads to the perception of movement?

a) A dog suddenly looming much larger

b) One person partially blocking another

c) A car appearing larger than another car

d) An object that is lighter on top and darker on the bottom

e) A "haze" cast over distant objects

141. Even though two lines are of equal length, the one with outward-pointing wings looks longer than the one with inward-pointing wings. This is an example of the

a) Ponzo illusion.

b) interposition illusion.

c) Müller-Lyer illusion.

d) texture gradient illusion.

e) phi phenomenon.

142. When you are watching a movie, what type of apparent movement gives you the perception of a "moving picture"?

a) Converging movement

b) Opponent-process movement

c) Stroboscopic movement

d) Subliminal movement

e) Changing size movement

143. Dr. Barrington is a cross-cultural researcher in the field of perception. She tests three groups of people to determine their susceptibility to the Müller-Lyer illusion. Group 1 consists of Americans, group 2 consists of members of the African tribe of Zulus, who live in rounded structures in southern Africa, and group 3 consists of Zulus who have relocated to American cities. Generalizing from previous research, what will Barrington find?

a) None of the groups will be susceptible to the illusion.

b) All three groups will be equally susceptible to the illusion.

c) Only the Americans will be susceptible to the illusion.

d) Both Zulu groups will be more susceptible to the illusion than the Americans.

e) The Americans and the Zulus who have moved to American cities will be more susceptible to the illusion than the African Zulu group.

144. The carpentered-world hypothesis helps explain the

a) phenomenon of psychokinesis.

b) cultural differences in the experience of the Müller-Lyer illusion.

c) effects of stroboscopic movement.

d) Gestalt laws of perceptual organization.

e) moon illusion.

145. Which of the following statements is true about subliminal perception?

a) People can perceive stimuli below the threshold of awareness.

b) The effects of subliminal perception are strong.

c) Subliminal messages can be used to influence consumer behavior.

d) Subliminal messages can help people become more successful in life.

e) The brain does not respond to subliminal messages.

146. The perception of stimuli that are presented below the threshold of conscious awareness is called

a) supraliminal perception.

b) extrasensory perception.

c) telepathy.

d) subliminal perception.

e) psychokinesis.

147. Which of the following is true about ESP?

a) College seniors are more staunch believers in ESP than are first-year students.

b) ESP, or extrasensory perception, is also known as the "seventh sense."

c) Although there is no scientific proof that clairvoyance or psychokinesis exists, there is such proof for telepathy and precognition.

d) There is no reliable scientific evidence that any form of ESP exists.

e) Belief in ESP is not widespread in this country.

148. The study of events that cannot be explained by known psychological, physical, or biological mechanisms is referred to as

a) extrasensory perception.

b) clairvoyance.

c) telepathy.

d) parapsychology.

e) subliminal perception.

149. Salvador does business as a mind reader. Salvador believes he is capable of

a) psychokinesis.

b) telepathy.

c) subliminal perception.

d) clairvoyance.

e) precognition.

150. A magician makes it appear that a scarf moves by itself from around his neck to the neck of a woman in the audience. The people in the audience who think that the magician has the ability to move things without touching them believe in

a) clairvoyance.

b) psychophysics.

c) precognition.

d) psychokinesis.

e) telepathy.

151. The sheriff's department of a small town has enlisted the aid of a psychic who claims to have knowledge of where a kidnapper is holding a child, even though she has not physically seen or heard anything regarding the case. The psychic is claiming to have what kind of ability?

a) Precognition

b) Clairvoyance

c) Telepathy

d) Psychokinesis

e) Subliminal perception

152. The ability to foretell the future is called

a) precognition.

b) parapsychology.

c) clairvoyance.

d) telepathy.

e) psychokinesis.

153. Which of the following is the best definition of clairvoyance?

a) The ability to foretell the future

b) The ability to move objects without touching them

c) The ability to read other people's minds

d) The perception of events not available to the senses

e) The ability to project your thoughts into other people's minds

154. Explain the Gestalt approach to perception.

155. Define parapsychology and describe four forms of ESP.

156. Just this morning, Brad studied the gate-control theory of pain in psychology class. Therefore, after tripping and scraping his knee on the way back to the dorm, he tried to apply the theory by

a) keeping his mind focused on his upcoming date with a new girlfriend.

b) lightly rubbing the injured area.

c) going to the pharmacy and purchasing an antibacterial ointment.

d) borrowing biofeedback equipment from the school clinic.

e) narrowing his attentive focus through continuous repetition of the phrase "I'm feeling just fine."

157. Electromyographic (EMG) biofeedback is to thermal biofeedback as ________ is to ________.

a) migraine; tension headache

b) finger; forehead

c) muscle tension; temperature

d) increased blood flow; increased muscle relaxation

e) vibration; tone

158. In an attempt to reduce his high blood pressure, Raoul is attached to monitoring equipment that provides him with information about his physiological responses. This information gives him cues to help him learn strategies to control his disorder. Which technique is Raoul using?

a) Biofeedback

b) Psychokinesis

c) Gate-control pain management

d) Acupuncture

e) Telepathy

159. Which technique has proved particularly effective in treating migraine headaches?

a) Meditation

b) Acupuncture

c) Thermal biofeedback

d) Gate-control pain management

e) Electromyographic biofeedback

160. What is the process of focused attention that induces a relaxed mental and physical state?

a) Biofeedback

b) Meditation

c) Bottlenecking

d) Telepathy

e) Distraction

161. Cathy takes three treatments of chemotherapy a week. At each session she brings along pleasant music to listen to during her treatment. Cathy is using which method of pain management?

a) Meditation

b) Biofeedback

c) Creating a bottleneck at the "gate"

d) Obtaining accurate information

e) Distraction

162. Based on your reading of the text, describe some psychological approaches to managing pain.

1.

The process by which we receive, transform, and process stimuli is

A)

sensation.

B)

perception.

C)

telepathy.

D)

habituation.

E)

psychophysics.

2.

The specialized cells in sense organs that detect external stimuli are called

A)

dichromats.

B)

sensory neurons.

C)

bipolar cells.

D)

ganglion cel