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TEST BANK NCLEX

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TEST BANK NCLEX

TEST BANK NCLEX

TEST BANK NCLEX

TEST BANK NCLEX

TEST BANK NCLEX

TEST BANK NCLEX

TEST BANK NCLEX

 

 

 

 

 

 

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[Solved] TEST BANK NCLEX

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  • Submitted On 03 Mar, 2022 11:01:40
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TEST BAK NCLEX QUESTIONS 1-15 Ref # 4366 The nurse receives a client from the post anesthesia care unit following a left femoral-popliteal bypass graft procedure. Which of the following assessments requires immediate notification of the health care provider?  Left foot is cool to the touch  Absent left pedal pulse using Doppler analysis  Inability to palpate the left pedal pulse  Acute pain in the left lower leg Although the inability to palpate the left pedal pulse, a cool extremity, and increased pain in the left lower leg are important findings, they all require additional nursing assessment prior to contacting the health care provider. In clients without palpable pedal pulses, the next step in the assessment is to perform a Doppler analysis. The inability to locate the left pedal pulse using the Doppler analysis requires immediately notifying the health care provider. Ref # 1028 There's a new medication order that reads: "administer 1 gtt ciprofloxacin solution OD Q 4 h" What action should the nurse take? Call the prescriber to clarify and rewrite the order Abbreviations, symbols and dose designations can be misinterpreted and lead to medication errors. "OD" can mean "right eye" (oculus dexter) or "once daily"; it should never be used when communicating medical information. The abbreviation "Q" should be written out as "every." Although "gtt" is not on the official "Do Not Use List", it's best to use "drop" instead. Asking other nurses to interpret an order is a potentially dangerous "workaround." The nurse should call the health care provider who prescribed the medication and clarify the order. Ref # 1440 Which individual is at greatest risk for the development of hypertension? 45 year-old African-American attorney The incidence of hypertension is greater among African-Americans than other groups in the United States. The incidence among the Hispanic population is rising. Ref # 2446 A woman, who delivered five days ago and who had been diagnosed with pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH), calls a hospital triage nurse hotline to ask for advice. She states, "I have had the worst headache for the past two days. It pounds and by the middle of the afternoon everything I look at looks wavy. Nothing I have taken helps." What should the nurse do next? Ask the client to stay on the line, get the address, and send an ambulance to the home The woman is at risk for seizure activity. The ambulance needs to bring the woman to the hospital for evaluation and treatment. For at-risk clients, PIH may progress to preeclampsia and eclampsia prior to, during, or after delivery; this may occur up to 10 days after delivery. Ref # 2065 A client expresses anger when a call light is not answered within five minutes. The client demanded a blanket. How should the nurse respond? "I see this is frustrating for you. I have a few minutes so let's talk." This is the best response because it gives credence to the client's feelings and then concerns. To say "let's talk" and ask a why question is not a therapeutic approach because it does not acknowledge or validate the client's feelings. To apologize and not notice the client's feelings is inappropriate. To say it could have waited a few minutes is rude and non-accepting of the client's verbalized needs. Ref # 2134 The client is admitted to an ambulatory surgery center and undergoes a right inguinal orchiectomy. Which option is the priority before the client can be discharged to home Post-operative pain is managed An orchiectomy is the surgical removal of one or both testicles. It is usually performed to treat cancer (testicular, prostate or cancer of the male breast), but it may also be performed to prevent cancer (with an undescended testicle.) Due to the location of the incision, pain management is the priority. Most men will be able to eat regularly when they get home; they should at least tolerate liquids before discharge. It's important that the client is able to get up and walk with assistance, but this is not the priority. Psychological counseling may be needed as part of long-term aftercare, but this is not an immediate priority. Ref # 1524 A nurse is teaching a group of adults about modifiable cardiac risk factors. Which of the following should the nurse focus on first? Smoking cessation Smoking cessation is the priority for clients at risk for cardiac disease. Smoking's effects result in reduction of cell oxygenation and constriction of the blood vessels. All of the other factors should be addressed at some point in time. Ref # 1721 The clinic nurse is assisting with medical billing. The nurse uses the DRG (Diagnosis Related Group) manual for which purpose? Determine reimbursement for a medical diagnosis DRGs are the basis of prospective payment plans for reimbursement for Medicare clients. Other insurance companies often use it as a standard for determining payment. KEYWORDS DRG diagnosis related group reimbursement Ref # 1328 A nurse is planning care for a 2 year-old hospitalized child. Which issue will produce the most stress at this age? Separation anxiety While a toddler will experience all of the stresses, separation from parents is the major stressor. Separation anxiety peaks in the toddler years. Ref # 2319 The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for several clients. Which of the laboratory result indicates a client with partly compensated metabolic acidosis? PaCO2 30 mm Hg Metabolic acidosis can be caused by many conditions, including renal failure, shock, severe diarrhea, dehydration, diabetic acidosis, and salicylate poisoning. With metabolic acidosis, you should expect a low pH (less than 7.35) and a low HCO3 (less than 22 mEq/L.) Compensation means the body is trying to get the pH back i...
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