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• NURS 6630 FINAL EXAM 2019

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•      Question 1

 

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the patient with psychosis and aggression?

 

 

Selected Answer:

 

A.

There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects.

 

 

 

•      Question 2

 

 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 75-year-old male patient diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease presents with agitation and aggressive behavior. The PMHNP determines which of the following to be the best treatment option?

 

 

Selected Answer:

 

D.

Citalopram (Celexa) or Escitalopram (Lexapro)

 

•      Question 3

 

 

1 out of 1 points

 

A group of nursing students seeks further clarification from the PMHNP on how cholinesterase inhibitors are beneficial for Alzheimer’s disease patients. What is the appropriate response?

 

 

Selected Answer:

 

D.

Both “A” & “C.”

 

•      Question 4

 

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The PMHNP understands that slow-dose extended release stimulants are most appropriate for which patient with ADHD?

 

 

Selected Answer:

 

A.

8-year-old patient

 

 

 

 

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[Solved] • NURS 6630 FINAL EXAM 2019

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Question 1 1 out of 1 points Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the patient with psychosis and aggression? Selected Answer: A. There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects. • Qu...
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