NR293 Pharmacology
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NR293 Pharmacology
Pre-class Questions Week 2
Answer the following questions. Give rationales for each question asked and include the reference and page number where the answer was found. Rationales must be TYPED and chapter and page no. must be provided. Upload test questions and rationales to the submission tab under the course shell. The assignment must be completed on the provided document. No other forms will be accepted. Questions will be graded for accuracy. Each question along with the rationale will be worth 0.5 points, for a total of 20 points possible. The assignment is due Sunday Jan 19, at 11:59 pm. No late submissions will be accepted. Late submissions will result in zero points for the assignment, no exceptions.
1. What are the adverse effects of sulfonamide antibiotics? Select all that apply.
a. Polyuria
b. Urticaria
c. Pancreatitis
d. Constipation
e. Hepatotoxicity
Rationale: Some of the adverse effects or effects that are not the expected effects include urticaria, pancreatitis, and hepatotoxicity. Chapter 38, Page 591
2. Which instruction will the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient receiving tetracycline?
a. "Take the medication until you feel better."
b. "Use sunscreen and protective clothing when outdoors."
c. "Keep the remainder of the medication in case of recurrence."
d. "Take the medication with food or milk to minimize gastrointestinal upset."
Rationale: When taking Tetracycline, the patient should use sunscreen and protective clothing. Chapter 38, page 602
3. A 22-year-old female patient is prescribed amoxicillin. Which is the most important intervention for this patient?
a. Obtain a baseline complete blood count.
b. Assess if the patient is on oral contraceptives.
c. Inform the patient about possible superinfections.
d. Instruct the patient to not take the medication before meals.
Rationale: When taking amoxicillin, the patient must let medical personal know if she is on oral contraceptives since they can interfere with the medications and cause a reaction. Chapter 38, Page 595
4. The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient. Which antibiotic is used for prophylaxis against infection in surgical patients?
a. Cefazolin
b. Cefoxitin
c. Cefepime
d. Ceftriaxone
Rationale: Cefazolin is used to take care of a postoperative patient because it targets gram positive bacteria and some gram-negative bacteria. Chapter 38, page 596
5. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking antibiotics. The patient reports flushing, itching, hives, anxiety, and throat and tongue swelling. The nurse finds that the patient has a rapid, irregular pulse. Which condition may the patient have as a result of taking the antibiotic?
a. Tolerance to the antibiotic drugs
b. An allergic anaphylactic reaction
c. Clostridium difficile bacterial infection
d. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Rationale: The symptoms listed above are symptoms of an allergic reaction. Chapter 2, page 29
6. A primary health care provider instructs a nurse to administer vancomycin to a patient. The nurse administers intravenous vancomycin to the patient over 1 hour. Why will the nurse do this?
a. To prevent edema
b. To prevent hemolysis
c. To prevent hypotension
d. To prevent abdominal flatulence
Rationale: To make sure that the vancomycin does not have a side effect or an adverse effect which is why it must be given over a longer time period such as over an hour. Chapter 39, page 619
7. A patient with a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection is prescribed vancomycin. The nurse collects a blood sample from the patient before administering the second dose of the drug and finds the serum drug concentration is 8 mcg/mL. What change will the nurse expect in the primary health care provider’s prescription?
a. Rapidly infuse the vancomycin
b. Increase the dose of vancomycin
c. Stop the administration of vancomycin
d. Replace vancomycin with another antibiotic
Rationale: Vancomycin is a broad-spectrum medication that focuses on eliminating the bacteria related to MRSA. Chapter 39, page 619
8. What is the most common adverse effect of the drug vancomycin when it is infused too rapidly?
a. Hearing loss
b. Kidney damage
c. Red man syndrome
d. Acute respiratory failure
Rationale: This may occur if the vancomycin is injected too fast into the system. This may first be a side effect but can turn into an adverse effect if not treated properly. Chapter 39, page 619
9. After prescribing an aminoglycoside antibiotic to a patient with an enterococcal infection, the primary health care provider tells the nurse to administer the drug by the rectal route. Which drug will the nurse find in the patient’s prescription?
a. Amikacin
b. Neomycin
c. Levofloxacin
d. Ciprofloxacin
Rationale: Neomycin is used for bacterial decontamination of the GI tract before any surgical procedures and its given rectally. Chapter 39 page 614
10. A patient on antibiotic therapy needs drug trough levels drawn. Which is the most appropriate time for the nurse to draw the trough level?
a. 10 minutes before administration of the intravenous antibiotic
b. 60 minutes after completion of the intravenous antibiotic infusion
c. 30 minutes after beginning administration of the intravenous antibiotic
d. 90 minutes after the intravenous antibiotic is scheduled to be administered
Rationale: Checked the lowest point helps the provider see if the medication has come out of the patient’s system so the next dose can be given. Chapter 2, page 25
11. What will the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of antiviral agents administered to treat human immunodeficiency virus infection?
a. Viral load
b. Lymphocyte counts
c. Red blood cell counts
d. Megakaryocyte counts
Rationale: Viral load is the primary goal of antiretroviral drugs. Chapter 40, page 637
12. A nurse is reviewing the lab reports for a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who is taking zidovudine. Which finding in the patient suggests possible drug- related adverse effects?
a. Blood urea nitrogen of 10 mg/dL
b. Serum sodium levels of 120 mEq/L
c. Alkaline phosphatase levels of 100 IU/L
d. White blood cell count 1000 cells/mcL of blood
Rationale: Having such a low WBC count means that the body is not fighting the infection like it is supposed to which is why it is considered an adverse effect, Chapter 40, page 640
13. Which agent is used to treat most infections caused by herpes simplex viruses and varicella-zoster virus?
a. Acyclovir
b. Zanamivir
c. Ganciclovir
d. Amantadine
Rationale: Acyclovir is used to treat initial and recurrent episodes of viral infections such as herpes simplex virus. Chapter 40, page 632
14. A patient enters the emergency department with suspected influenza. Before administering the prescribed oseltamivir, what should the nurse determine?
a. Asian descent
b. Allergies to antibiotics
c. Length of time since onset of symptoms
d. Assessment of renal function
Rationale: Before administering the Tamiflu, the nurse must assess the amount of time that the patient has been having these symptoms. Chapter 40, page 633
15. A nurse is administering intravenous (IV) acyclovir to a patient. What should the nurse remember to ensure safe administration of the drug?
a. Monitor the IV site.
b. Avoid diluting the drug.
c. Limit fluid intake during therapy.
d. Administer the drug as an IV push.
Rationale: When administering any medications via IV, the nurse must assess the IV site to make sure it is not infected or itchiness. Chapter 40, page 641
16. A nurse has a sample of the medicine nystatin. Which type of patient will receive this medication?
a. Patients with aspergillosis infection
b. Patients with cryptococcus infection
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