CJUS 330 TEST 3

Question 1

2 out of 2 points

Which of the following is a power of the grand jury?

0 out of 2 points

Which of the following property crimes has the highest clearance rate?

Question 3

2 out of 2 points

On any given day, approximately __________ of the nearly 744,600 persons in jail have not been convicted of any crime.

Question 4

2 out of 2 points

All of the crimes cleared by police each year result in approximately __________ million arrests for nontraffic offenses.

2 out of 2 points

The leading advocate for federal grand jury reform is the:

2 out of 2 points

What must be supported by oath or affirmation of either the victim or the arresting officer? It is most commonly used in prosecuting misdemeanor offenses or city order violations.

1.5 out of 1.5 points

Grand juries decide the guilt or innocence for defendants charged with felony offenses.

1.5 out of 1.5 points

As a general rule, the Supreme Court expects an initial appearance to occur within 24 hours of a warrantless arrest.

1.5 out of 1.5 points

Most felony crimes are for nonviolent offenses.

Question 10

1.5 out of 1.5 points

If a prosecutor refuses to file charges in a case, there may be a review of this decision by the judge on appeal.

1.5 out of 1.5 points

Most defendants appear without counsel during an initial appearance.

Question 12

1.5 out of 1.5 points

Drug crimes are categorized as Type I offenses in the Uniform Crime Reporting.

Question 13

2 out of 2 points

Evidence appears to suggest that the exclusionary rule has what effect on the criminal court system?

2 out of 2 points

The Miranda warnings do not have to be given before law enforcement obtains __________.

Question 15

2 out of 2 points

Discovery rules are vitally important to:

2 out of 2 points

Which rule prohibits the prosecutor from using illegally obtained evidence during a trial?

Question 17

2 out of 2 points

Which of the following has to do with “aerial searches”?

Question 18

2 out of 2 points

The first part of the __________ Amendment is referred to as the reasonableness clause.

Question 19

2 out of 2 points

Which of the following actors would be in favor of broader discovery laws?

Question 20

1.5 out of 1.5 points

Before a suspect in police custody is interrogated, the suspect must be informed of his/her rights under the Fifth Amendment’s Self-Incrimination Clause.

Question 21

1.5 out of 1.5 points

Exculpatory evidence is any evidence that may be favorable to the defendant.

Question 22

1.5 out of 1.5 points

Because of Jencks v. United States, requiring the defense to disclose an alibi defense prior to trial does not violate the defendant’s privilege against self-incrimination.

Question 23

1.5 out of 1.5 points

After a police officer decides that a search warrant is necessary, the officer usually goes back to the station house to prepare the application, affidavit, and warrant.

Question 24

1.5 out of 1.5 points

Generally, when prosecutors adopt open discovery policies, pleas of guilty are entered more quickly.

1.5 out of 1.5 points

The exclusionary rule bars evidence from being used in the prosecution’s case-in-chief if it was obtained in violation of a defendant’s constitutional rights.

1.5 out of 1.5 points

The most controversial of the U.S. Supreme Court’s criminal justice decisions have concerned how the police gather evidence.

Question 27

2 out of 2 points

Why do adherents of the crime control model oppose plea bargaining?

2 out of 2 points

A count bargain means the:

2 out of 2 points

In ___________, when a plea rests in any significant degree on a promise or agreement of the prosecutor, so that it can be said to be a part of the inducement or consideration, such promise must be fulfilled.

Question 30

2 out of 2 points

A defendant who pleads guilty is generally required to read and sign which form?

2 out of 2 points

A defendant is charged with aggravated assault. The prosecutor will accept a plea to simple assault. This is an example of which kind of bargain?

2 out of 2 points

When the prosecutor allows the defendant to plead guilty to a less serious charge than the one originally filed, this is called:

Question 33

2 out of 2 points

In __________, given the defendant’s desire to avoid the death penalty and the existence of substantial evidence of guilt, the plea of guilty was valid even though the defendant denied guilt.

1.5 out of 1.5 points

Judges engage in plea bargaining to move cases.

0 out of 1.5 points

Researchers consistently find that jurisdictions with larger caseloads have higher rates of plea bargaining than jurisdictions with smaller caseloads.

Question 36

0 out of 1.5 points

Murder, rape, and robbery defendants are less likely to plead guilty than those charged with less serious offenses.

Question 37

0 out of 1.5 points

Plea bargaining did not become well established in the United States until the 1960s.

1.5 out of 1.5 points

In the courtroom work group, the judge generally knows less about the case than the attorneys.

Question 39

1.5 out of 1.5 points

A victim’s preference for a trial is among the most important factors that a prosecutor considers when deciding whether to offer a defendant a plea bargain.

Question 40

1.5 out of 1.5 points

The judge knows relatively little about each case.

3.5 out of 5 points

Describe the four most common ways that defendants can secure pretrial release? Which is the most common? Why?

4 out of 5 points

Describe the wedding cake model of the criminal justice system. Be sure to provide examples of the types of offenses that may be found in each layer.