Straighterline Pharmacology102 Exam 3(Already graded A+)

Straighterline Pharmacology102 Exam 3

Question 1

Hormone replacement therapy is used to treat dyspareunia, a condition in which:

Select one:

a. complete cessation of a menstrual period occurs.

b. there is a significant decrease in female sex hormone production.

c. body and facial hair is excessive.

d. vaginal atrophy may cause difficult or painful sexual intercourse. 

Question 2

Estrogens released from the ovary _____.

Select one:

a. increase secretion of GnRH through positive feedback

b. decrease secretion of GnRH through negative feedback

c. increase secretion of FSH and LH through positive feedback

d. decrease secretion of FSH and LH through negative feedback 

Question 3

Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of estrogens and progestins in women?

Select one:

a. Hypotension

b. Liver disease

c. Diabetes 

d. Sexual activity

Question 4

What is the role of nitric oxide (NO) in establishing and maintaining an erection?

Select one:

a. NO produces cyclic guanosine monophosphate.

b. NO metabolizes cyclic guanosine monophosphate.

c. NO blocks phosphodiesterase type 5. 

d. NO stimulates the enzyme guanylatecyclase.

Question 5

Which of the following is true of selective oral PDE5 inhibitors such as tadalafil?

Select one:

a. They selectively block cGMP in the penis.

b. They do not affect erection that is not a result of sexual stimulation. 

c. They increase or affect erection in men who are not impotent.

d. They are approved for use in women to treat impotence.

Question 6

_____ is an acute condition in which there is a reduction in the number of white blood cells (WBCs), specifically polymorphonuclear cells (granulocytes).

Select one:

a. Hypercalcemia

b. Agranulocytosis 

c. Osteoporosis

d. Cretinism

Question 7

Allison has lost a lot of weight and has an abnormally rapid heartbeat. She often suffers from anxiety and muscle weakness. When she visits Dr. Ford's clinic for a checkup, Dr. Ford immediately observes that Allison has bulging eyeballs. After running a few tests, Dr. Ford confirms his suspicions and tells Allison that she is suffering from an autoimmune disease that affects the thyroid gland. He tells her that, according to the test results, she has very high levels of thyroid hormones circulating in her bloodstream and that the excess hormones are responsible for producing these symptoms. Based on the information provided in this scenario, from which of the following conditions is Allison most likely suffering?

Select one:

a. Cretinism

b. Nontoxic goiter

c. Graves' disease 

d. Myxedema

Question 8

Which of the following drugs do not affect the thyroid gland but are administered to inhibit the increased sympathetic responses that accompany hyperthyroidism?

Select one:

a. Beta-adrenergic blocking drugs 

b. Leukotriene inhibitors

c. Calcium channel blockers

d. None of the above

Question 9

Using your knowledge of the mechanism of action of the bisphosphonates, select the true statement related to their use in the treatment of osteoporosis.

Select one:

a. It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 2 hours of taking calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be increased.

b. It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 1 hour of taking calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be decreased. 

c. It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 1 hour of taking calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be increased.

d. It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 2 hours of taking calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be decreased.

Question 10

Select the statement that best explains the results of the excessive use of calcium and vitamin D in the treatment of hypocalcemia.

Select one:

a. The excessive use of calcium and vitamin D may lead to convulsions and paresthesia.

b. The excessive use of calcium and vitamin D may lead to hypercalcemia and kidney stone formation. 

c. The excessive use of calcium and vitamin D may lead to carpopedal spasms.

d. All of these are correct.

Question 11

Alex has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes and is prescribed Glucophage. He is invited to a party by his friend Ryan. Which of the following statements would be accurate for the given situation?

Select one:

a. Alex should take a shot of insulin before going to the party.

b. Alex should take a shot of insulin right after having food at the party.

c. Alex should avoid alcohol use. 

d. Alex is unlikely to develop symptoms of fatigue and respiratory or abdominal distress.

Question 12

Glucagon is secreted:

Select one:

a. when GIP and GLP-1 are released.

b. when the beta cells secrete insulin.

c. when blood glucose levels are below normal. 

d. after consuming a large meal.

Question 13

Which ion channel is essential for the release of insulin and amylin into the blood?

Select one:

a. Sodium

b. Calcium 

c. Potassium

d. Chloride

Question 14

Insulin sensitizers include _____.

Select one:

a. sulfonylureas

b. meglitinides

c. secretagogues

d. thiazolidinediones 

Question 15

Identify the accurate statement about insulin pens.

Select one:

a. The pens increase accuracy in dose delivery. 

b. Once a cartridge is loaded and opened, the loaded pen should be refrigerated.

c. The needle should be inserted at a 45° angle into pinched skin.

d. Insulin pens should be capped in order to avoid air being introduced in to the cartridge through the needle.

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Question 16

Identify the individual who should receive chemoprophylaxis.

Select one:

a. Mason, who is obese and has type 1 diabetes mellitus

b. Logan, who has had a knee and hip replacement surgery and has to undergo a cystoscopy 

c. Charlotte, who has recently tested positive for pregnancy and smokes occasionally

d. Abigail, who is a swimmer and drinks occasionally

Question 17

Which of the following are the two dyes that the gram stain contains?

Select one:

a. Crystal violet and safranin 

b. Crystal violet and methylene blue

c. Methylene blue and safranin

d. Iodine and methylene blue

Question 18

Which antibiotics can be used for bowel sterilization prior to surgery?

Select one:

a. Penicillins and macrolides

b. Aminoglycosides and sulfonamides 

c. Cephalosporins and fluoroquinolones

d. Tetracyclines and aztreonam

Question 19

An antibiotic will have no effect on an infection if:

Select one:

a. the antibiotic has a broad-spectrum.

b. the bacteria are not resistant to the antibiotic.

c. the bacteria do not fall within the drug's antibacterial spectrum. 

d. beta-lactamase activity is not present.

Question 20

With which antibiotics should alcohol consumption be avoided?

Select one:

a. Penicillins and macrolides

b. Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines

c. Cephalosporins and metronidazole 

d. Sulfonamides and fluoroquinolones

Question 21

Which of the following best defines the term acute porphyria?

Select one:

a. A disease caused by the obstruction of blood flow in the large arteries of the arms and legs

b. A potentially fatal illness characterized by vomiting, an enlarged liver, convulsions, and coma, in children and adolescents

c. A disease associated with excessive liver production of delta-aminolevulonic acid and characterized by intermittent hypertension, abdominal cramps, and psychosis 

d. None of these

Question 22

Which of the following best defines the term antimetabolite?

Select one:

a. A drug that is different in chemical structure from the natural chemicals in a normal biochemical reaction and inhibits the normal division of the cells from occurring

b. A drug that is very similar to natural chemicals in a normal biochemical reaction in cells but different enough to interfere with the normal division and functions of cells 

c. A drug that is different in chemical structure from natural chemicals in a normal biochemical reaction in cells but similar enough to help the normal functioning of cells

d. None of these

Question 23

Which of the following is a true statement about microorganism resistance?

Select one:

a. Primary resistance occurs when the organism does not respond to the drug because it does not recognize the drug or it has a protective mechanism to destroy the drug on contact. 

b. Primary resistance occurs when the organism initially responds to the drug but then stops responding or requires greater doses to kill the organism.

c. Using multiple drugs in combination at the same time speeds the development of resistance to a single drug primarily because of their antagonistic effect on each other.

d. None of these are correct.

Question 24

Which of the following is used in the treatment of respiratory syncytial virus–induced severe lower respiratory infections in hospitalized children?

Select one:

a. Tipranavir (Aptivus)

b. Ribavirin (Virazole) 

c. Amantadine (Symadine)

d. None of these

Question 25

Which of the following statements is true about griseofulvin?

Select one:

a. The presence of food does not alter the rate of absorption of griseofulvin.

b. The presence of food increases the absorption of griseofulvin. 

c. The presence of food decreases the rate of the absorption of griseofulvin.

d. None of these are correct.