Liberty University BUSI 340 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
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Liberty University BUSI 340 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
6 different versions
Two company divisions produce completely different products but must seek funding from head office for a capital expansion project. The relationship between these two divisions would be best described as
Team cohesiveness tends to be higher when
_____ provides an explanation of why people belong to informal groups
Pooled interdependence is
Teams with strong fault lines
Synergie Inc. formed a team to improve revenues for its service stations along major highways in Malaysia. This team, which included a service station dealer, a union truck driver and four or five marketing executives, disbanded after it had reviewed the Malaysian service stations and submitted a business plan. This team is called a(n):
Which of the following types of task interdependence is seen among production employees working on assembly lines
According to social identity theory
The main advantage of constructive conflict is that it
Liam works in a team of four other accounting professionals within a company. Liam doesn't particularly agree with many of his teammates' ideas, such as leaving work early and failing to double-check some account entries. However, he works comfortably with the group because their behavior and decisions are predictable. What foundation of trust does Liam have in this team
The drive to bond and the dynamics of social identity theory both explain why people
Keeping the team size sufficiently small and designing tasks such that each team member's performance is measurable are two ways to
Safety representatives in each of the six plants of a manufacturing company need to communicate to each other every week the number and type of health and safety incidents in their plant. Each representative has a safety reporting document where he or she notes the type and number of infractions during the previous week. These incidents are well known to other representatives, so there are rarely any surprises. This weekly communication calls for
Listeners often engage in an automatic process of "catching" or sharing another person's emotions by mimicking that person's facial expressions and other nonverbal behavior. Which of the following drives causes this effect
Employees can expand the data-carrying capacity of lean media channel if they
When a sender and receiver, belonging to the same group, want to transmit technical information more efficiently, they should use
Which of the following should corporate leaders do with the organizational grapevine
In the communication process model, "decoding the message" occurs immediately
Which of the following communication media tends to be the best for transmitting emotions
Buffering, summarizing, and omitting are ways to
In the communication process, filtering occurs when
You have made an important presentation to several Japanese executives regarding a proposed partnership between your American company and their Japanese firm. The Japanese executives were very silent during the presentation. Most people in the United States would view this silence as:
_____ refers to the process by which information is transmitted and understood between two or more people
Which of the following is a factor in social acceptance
Research suggests that effective workspace design mainly balances the trade-off between:
Which of the following types of task interdependence is seen among production employees working on assembly lines
Social loafing occurs
Self-directed teams
Which of the following competencies would primarily assist team maintenance
Which of the following foundations of trust is determined mainly by the other party's predictability
Identify the task-related characteristics in the ‘five C's' of effective member behaviors
Synergie Inc. formed a team to improve revenues for its service stations along major highways in Malaysia. This team, which included a service station dealer, a union truck driver and four or five marketing executives, disbanded after it had reviewed the Malaysian service stations and submitted a business plan. This team is called a(n):
Which of the following generally occurs during the storming stage of team development
Groups are considered teams only when
Groupthink characteristics cause team members to be _____ their decisions
Production blocking and evaluation apprehension
The encoding-decoding process is generally more effective when both parties
Which of the following represents the first step in the communication model
Effective communication occurs when
Which of the following is an advantage associated with using written communication channels in persuading people?
Active listeners improve their evaluating activities by
You have made an important presentation to several Japanese executives regarding a proposed partnership between your American company and their Japanese firm. The Japanese executives were very silent during the presentation. Most people in the United States would view this silence as
_____ are collaborative web spaces in which anyone in a group can write, edit, or remove material from the Web site
In the communication process model, "decoding the message" occurs immediately
Which of the following fundamental drives is highly influenced by effective communication
Emotional contagion occurs when
Which of the following communication channels has the highest media richness
The organizational grapevine is useful because it
How do men and women generally differ in their communication styles in organizational settings
Highcohesion teams perform poorer than lowcohesion teams when
Which of the following are two features that distinguish virtual teams from conventional teams
Liam works in a team of four other accounting professionals within a company. Liam doesn't particularly agree with many of his teammates' ideas, such as leaving work early and failing to doublecheck some account entries. However, he works comfortably with the group because their behavior and decisions are predictable. What foundation of trust does Liam have in this team?
A diverse team is better than a homogeneous team
Identify the taskrelated characteristics in the ‘five C's' of effective member behaviors
Teams with strong fault lines
Which of the following are described as virtual teams
The main advantage of constructive conflict is that it
A task force refers to any
Which of the following is true about calculusbased trust
Fellow team members often monitor performance more closely than a traditional supervisor. This is particularly true where the team's performance depends on
Selfdirected teams
According to the communication process model
The organizational grapevine is useful because it
Which of the following represents the first step in the communication model
In organizational communication, "flaming" generally refers to
The capacity of a communication medium to transmit information is referred to as
Which of the following is an advantage of using email communication
Which of the following communication channels has the lowest media richness
In the communication process, filtering occurs when
Which of the following communication channels has the highest media richness
Which of the following is a key element in emotional contagion
In Alphatech Systems, an email software screens incoming messages by organizing them into mailboxes and identifying junk mail. As a result, employees in this company can quickly identify the most important email messages, and overlook the junk mail. This email feature improves communication by
Which of the following is an advantage associated with using written communication channels in persuading people
Which of the following represents the first three steps in the communication model in the correct order
1.
Teams are groups of two or more people who have equal influence over each other regarding the team's goals and means of achieving those goals.
True False
2.
Team members are held together by their interdependence and need for collaboration to achieve common goals.
True False
3.
Employees in a department are considered a team only when they directly interact and coordinate work activities with each other.
True False
4.
Informal groups exist primarily to complete tasks for the organization that management doesn't know about.
True False
5.
Task forces are temporary groups that typically investigate a particular problem and disband when the decision is made.
True False
6.
Social identity theory provides one of the reasons why people join informal groups.
True False
7.
Our desire for informal groups is mostly influenced by our drive to defend.
True False
8.
Under stressful or dangerous conditions, people are more likely to stay together than disperse, even when the other people are strangers.
True False
9.
Teams typically provide poorer customer service due to interpersonal conflicts amongst the members.
True False
10.
Employees are more motivated in teams because they are accountable to fellow team members who also monitor their performance.
True False
11.
Teams are better suited to simple work such as routine processing jobs than complex jobs.
True False
12.
Process losses are the resources expended to develop and maintain an effective team.
True False
13.
Brooks's law says that adding more people to a late software project only makes it later.
True False
14.
Social loafing is most common in teams that are very small.
True False
15.
Social loafing is more prevalent when the task is interesting.
True False
16.
Teams are well suited when complex work can be divided into more specialized roles.
True False
17.
Reciprocal interdependence is the highest level of task interdependence in organizations.
True False
18.
Students experience sequential interdependence when they are lined up at the laser printers trying to get their assignments done just before a class deadline.
True False
19.
An organizational team is highly interdependent, but the members have different goals. Here, the organization should try to reduce the level of interdependence.
True False
20.
Smaller teams have more process loss than the larger teams.
True False
21.
Cooperating, coordinating, and communicating are task related characteristics of effective team members.
True False
22.
Comforting and conflict resolution mainly assist team maintenance.
True False
23.
The members of a diverse team take longer to become a high-performing team.
True False
24.
Homogeneous teams tend to have "fault lines" that may split the team along gender, professional, or other dimensions.
True False
25.
Team processes in the team effectiveness model include team development, norms, cohesion, and trust.
True False
26.
The norming stage of team development is marked by interpersonal conflict as team members compete for leadership and other positions on the team.
True False
27.
Teams develop their first real sense of cohesion during the norming stage of team development.
True False
28.
During the adjourning stage of team development, team members shift their attention away from relationships and instead focus mainly on completing the task.
True False
29.
A role is a set of behaviors that people are expected to perform because they hold certain positions in a team and organization.
True False
30.
Team members typically hold one or more formal roles in the team as well as roles that they informally fulfill at various times.
True False
31.
Some team-building interventions clarify the team's performance goals and increase the team's motivation to accomplish these goals.
True False
32.
Norms are the informal rules and shared expectations that groups establish to regulate the behavior of their members.
True False
33.
Team members do not conform to team norms unless other team members apply reinforcement or punishment.
True False
34.
Diversity among team members tends to undermine cohesion.
True False
35.
To maximize cohesiveness, the team should be as small as possible without jeopardizing its ability to accomplish the task.
True False
36.
Team cohesiveness decreases with increased interaction because there are more chances for conflicts to emerge.
True False
37.
Teams tend to have more cohesion when entry to the team is restricted.
True False
38.
When highly cohesive teams have norms that conflict with organizational goals, team performance is reduced.
True False
39.
Trust refers to positive expectations one person has toward another person in low-risk situations.
True False
40.
A low level of trust results when others affect you in situations where you are at risk but you believe they will not harm you.
True False
41.
Calculus-based trust is based on the belief that the other party will deliver its promises because punishments would be applied if they fail to deliver those promises.
True False
42.
Knowledge-based trust is confidence in one's own ability or knowledge.
True False
43.
Knowledge-based trust offers a low level of potential and is more unstable because it is exploratory in its nature.
True False
44.
Identification-based trust alone cannot sustain a team's relationship, because it relies on deterrence.
True False
45.
Identification-based trust is potentially the strongest and most robust form of trust in work relationships.
True False
46.
When people join teams, they typically have a very low level of trust in the other team members.
True False
47.
The trust that new team members feel toward their teammates is fragile and easily weakened.
True False
48.
Self-directed work teams plan, organize, and control activities with little or no direct involvement of supervisors.
True False
49.
In most self-directed work teams, the supervisor assigns tasks that individual team members perform.
True False
50.
Having plenty of structure is a success factor for virtual teams.
True False
51.
Production blocking refers to a constraint in team decision making that discourages employees from mentioning their ideas in front of coworkers.
True False
52.
Evaluation apprehension is most common in meetings attended by people with different levels of status or expertise.
True False
53.
Groupthink concept includes the dysfunctional effects of conformity on team decision making.
True False
54.
An important rule of brainstorming is that all the participants should evaluate and criticize the other team members' ideas.
True False
55.
Electronic brainstorming significantly reduces the problem of production blocking.
True False
56.
The nominal group technique is a variation of brainstorming.
True False
57.
The nominal group technique tends to produce more and better ideas than do traditional interacting groups.
True False
58.
The nominal group technique removes the problems of evaluation apprehension and production blocking.
True False
59.
The nominal group technique is not applied in real-world settings.
True False
60.
Groups are considered teams only when:
A.
they operate without any supervisor.
B.
everyone in the department has the same set of skills.
C.
employees directly interact with each other and coordinate work activities.
D.
all employees are located in the same physical area.
E.
most of the employees have the same level of motivation to accomplish goals.
61.
Informal groups:
A.
are initiated by the organization for special purposes.
B.
exist primarily for the benefit of their members.
C.
perform routine organizational goals.
D.
always have a high level of interdependence.
E.
perform uncommon tasks of the organization.
62.
A task force refers to any:
A.
informal group that has the same members as the permanent task-oriented group.
B.
formal group whose members work permanently and most of their time in that team.
C.
formal group whose members must be able to perform all tasks of the team.
D.
temporary team that investigates a particular problem and typically disbands when the decision is made.
E.
temporary team which has experts in an area to provide advice to organizations in making special decisions from time to time.
63.
Synergie Inc. formed a team to improve revenues for its service stations along major highways in Malaysia. This team, which included a service station dealer, a union truck driver and four or five marketing executives, disbanded after it had reviewed the Malaysian service stations and submitted a business plan. This team is called a(n):
A.
skunkwork.
B.
bootleg group.
C.
informal group.
D.
community of practice.
E.
task force.
64.
Which of the following types of teams are best known for bootlegging to develop new products, services, or procedures?
A.
Skunkworks
B.
Communities of practice
C.
Task forces
D.
Informal groups
E.
Production teams
65.
_____ provides an explanation of why people belong to informal groups.
A.
Need to defend
B.
Social identity theory
C.
Confirmation bias
D.
Social loafing
E.
Cognitive dissonance
66.
According to social identity theory:
A.
teams are never as productive as individuals working alone.
B.
the most effective teams have a large number of members.
C.
the team development process occurs more rapidly for heterogeneous teams than for homogeneous teams.
D.
people define themselves by their group affiliations.
E.
teams are less productive in performing complex tasks.
67.
The drive to bond and the dynamics of social identity theory both explain why people:
A.
join informal groups.
B.
tend to ignore team norms whenever possible.
C.
have difficulty feeling cohesive in teams.
D.
engage in social loafing.
E.
work better alone than in teams.
68.
Fellow team members often monitor performance more closely than a traditional supervisor. This is particularly true where the team's performance depends on:
A.
technological factors.
B.
special efforts of members.
C.
certain skills of members.
D.
aptitudes of members.
E.
worst performer in the group.
69.
In team dynamics, process losses are best described as:
A.
productivity losses that occur when individual members need to learn a new task.
B.
information lost due to imperfect communication among team members.
C.
resources expended toward team development and maintenance.
D.
knowledge lost when a team member leaves the organization.
E.
knowledge lost when tacit knowledge is converted to structural knowledge.
70.
Brooks's Law says that adding more people to a late software project only makes it later. This law is mainly referring to:
A.
lack of team cohesiveness.
B.
existence of process losses.
C.
excessive team norms.
D.
unfriendly team environment.
E.
formation of informal teams.
71.
Social loafing occurs:
A.
in smaller rather than larger teams.
B.
when the task is boring.
C.
in tasks with high interdependence.
D.
when employees believe the team's objective is important.
E.
among employees with collectivist rather than individualistic values.
72.
Keeping the team size sufficiently small and designing tasks such that each team member's performance is measurable are two ways to:
A.
minimize team cohesiveness.
B.
add more roles to the team.
C.
increase the risk of forming dysfunctional norms.
D.
minimize social loafing.
E.
minimize the process losses.
73.
The phenomenon where people exert less effort when working in groups than when working alone is referred to as _____.
A.
team cohesiveness
B.
social identity
C.
pooled interdependence
D.
team conformity
E.
social loafing
74.
High-performance teams depend on organizational leaders who provide support and strategic direction while team members focus on:
A.
determining the performance goals.
B.
operational efficiency and flexibility.
C.
organizational decision making.
D.
evaluating the team's objectives.
E.
forming the norms of the team.
75.
Which of the following types of task interdependence is seen among production employees working on assembly lines?
A.
Sequential interdependence
B.
Total independence
C.
Reciprocal interdependence
D.
Pooled interdependence
E.
Alternate interdependence
76.
Two company divisions produce completely different products but must seek funding from head office for a capital expansion project. The relationship between these two divisions would be best described as:
A.
total interdependence.
B.
sequential interdependence.
C.
reciprocal interdependence.
D.
anticipatory interdependence.
E.
pooled interdependence.
77.
Pooled interdependence is:
A.
essential for team effectiveness.
B.
the same as reciprocal interdependence.
C.
the weakest form of interdependence other than complete independence.
D.
the best way to avoid social loafing.
E.
is the lowest level of interdependence.
78.
Employees with _____, in which work output is exchanged back and forth among individuals, should be organized into teams to facilitate coordination in their interwoven relationship.
A.
pooled interdependence
B.
reciprocal interdependence
C.
counterproductive norms
D.
high levels of social loafing
E.
a very high level of heterogeneity
79.
Which of the following competencies would primarily assist team maintenance?
A.
Cooperating
B.
Coordinating
C.
Communicating
D.
Comforting
E.
Collaborating
80.
Identify the task-related characteristics in the ‘five C's' of effective member behaviors.
A.
Comforting and communicating
B.
Cooperating and conflict resolving
C.
Coordinating and communicating
D.
Conflict resolving and coordinating
E.
Comforting and cooperating
81.
"Fault lines" are more likely to occur when teams:
A.
have very few members.
B.
are involved in sequential interdependence.
C.
engage in participative management.
D.
are highly interdependent.
E.
are diverse.
82.
Teams with strong fault lines:
A.
experience more dysfunctional conflict within the team.
B.
proceed more quickly through the team development process.
C.
have team members with similar demographic and professional backgrounds.
D.
have very few members in the team.
E.
have better interpersonal relations.
83.
A diverse team is better than a homogeneous team:
A.
when designing and launching a new product or service.
B.
on tasks requiring a high degree of cooperation.
C.
in situations where the team must reach the performing stage of team development quickly.
D.
in most organizational activities as they will have fewer conflicts.
E.
if the team is working on a project that involves routine tasks.
84.
Which of the following generally occurs during the storming stage of team development?
A.
Members learn about each other and evaluate the benefits and costs of continued membership.
B.
Members shift their attention away from task orientation to a socio-emotional focus as they realize their relationship is coming to an end.
C.
Members learn to coordinate their actions and become more task-oriented.
D.
Members develop their first real sense of cohesion and, through disclosure and feedback, make an effort to understand and accept each other.
E.
Members try to establish norms of appropriate behavior and performance standards.
85.
During the _____ stage of team development, team members shift their attention away from task orientation to a relationship focus.
A.
forming
B.
storming
C.
norming
D.
adjourning
E.
performing
86.
A role is a set of behaviors that people are expected to perform because:
A.
they need to present a certain image in their organization.
B.
they hold certain positions in a team and organization.
C.
of certain aptitudes and tastes that they possess.
D.
of the nature and type of the team environment.
E.
of the interpersonal conflicts in the team.
87.
Which of the following is a major problem associated with team building activities?
A.
They cannot be used to clarify the team's performance goals.
B.
They do not focus on improving relations among team members.
C.
Team building consists of informal activities rather than formal activities.
D.
Team building attempts slow down the team development process.
E.
They are used as general solutions rather than specific solutions.
88.
How do norms affect the behavior of team members?
A.
They encourage members to try new behaviors not previously sanctioned by the team.
B.
They encourage the members to think out of the box and provide innovative solutions.
C.
They help the team regulate and guide the behaviors of its members.
D.
They help the team move from the forming to storming stages of team development.
E.
They enable team members to have complete autonomy in their functioning.
89.
If a dysfunctional norm is very deeply ingrained in a team, the best strategy is probably to:
A.
tell the group that corporate leaders are willing to tolerate the dysfunctional norm.
B.
disband the group and replace it with people having more favorable norms.
C.
supplement the existing group with one or two people having more favorable norms.
D.
introduce rewards that support the dysfunctional norm.
E.
provide direct reinforcement and punishment to the employees.
90.
Team cohesiveness tends to be higher when:
A.
the team is large and established.
B.
when entry into the team is difficult.
C.
when the team has distinct fault lines.
D.
when members have limited interaction.
E.
external competition is limited.
91.
When compared to people in low-cohesion teams, members of high-cohesion teams:
A.
are less motivated to maintain their membership.
B.
resolve conflicts swiftly and effectively.
C.
are less sensitive to each other's needs.
D.
are less likely to share information with each other.
E.
have external locus of control.
92.
High-cohesion teams perform poorer than low-cohesion teams when:
A.
the team faces external competition.
B.
the team has more than fifteen members.
C.
the team leader has less knowledge and skills than the team members.
D.
team norms undermine the organization's performance.
E.
teams have tight deadlines.
93.
Calculus, knowledge, and identification are the three:
A.
stages of team development.
B.
ways to improve team cohesiveness.
C.
foundations of trust in teams.
D.
types of psychological contract.
E.
stages of conflict among team members.
94.
Which of the following is true about calculus-based trust?
A.
It is the lowest potential trust in organizations.
B.
It can sustain a team's relationship by itself.
C.
It is mainly based on the other party's predictability.
D.
It occurs when one party thinks, feels, and responds like the other party.
E.
It is based on the knowledge of the other member's behavior.
95.
Which of the following foundations of trust is determined mainly by the other party's predictability?
A.
Calculus-based
B.
Identification-based
C.
Knowledge-based
D.
Relational
E.
Transactional
96.
Liam works in a team of four other accounting professionals within a company. Liam doesn't particularly agree with many of his teammates' ideas, such as leaving work early and failing to double-check some account entries. However, he works comfortably with the group because their behavior and decisions are predictable. What foundation of trust does Liam have in this team?
A.
Calculus-based
B.
Identification-based
C.
Knowledge-based
D.
Co-operative
E.
Collaborative
97.
Self-directed teams:
A.
are informal groups that exist in an organization.
B.
usually exist as communities of practice.
C.
consist of a group of employees who are subject to methodical supervision.
D.
have substantial autonomy over the execution of a complete task.
E.
have reduced member-interdependence compared to other teams.
98.
Which of the following allow employees to collectively plan, organize, and control work activities with little or no direct involvement of a higher-status supervisor?
A.
Gainsharing teams
B.
Production teams
C.
Virtual teams
D.
Advisory teams
E.
Self-directed teams
99.
Which of the following are described as virtual teams?
A.
Groups of employees who are almost (virtually) identical to each other in skills and values.
B.
Cross-functional groups of employees that operate across space, time, and organizational boundaries.
C.
Formal work teams in which most members do not feel that they are really part of the team.
D.
Informal groups that meet only in cyberspace.
E.
Groups of employees from different departments who are located near each other.
100.
Which of the following are two features that distinguish virtual teams from conventional teams?
A.
Size and heterogeneity
B.
Lack of co-location and dependence on information technology
C.
Joint optimization and primary work unit
D.
Norms and trust
E.
Size and homogeneity of the team
101.
Production blocking and evaluation apprehension:
A.
improve the creative process in teams.
B.
help teams to avoid groupthink.
C.
are two ways to overcome group polarization in a team.
D.
reduce the discipline of a team in group meetings.
E.
hinder organizational decision making in teams.
102.
Which of the following statements about evaluation apprehension in team settings is true?
A.
Evaluation apprehension increases with the individual's motivation to share his or her ideas.
B.
Evaluation apprehension is more likely to occur when team members formally evaluate each others' performance throughout the year.
C.
Evaluation apprehension motivates team members to generate creative solutions, no matter how silly they may sound.
D.
Evaluation apprehension tends to affect the discipline and functioning of team meetings.
E.
Evaluation apprehension can be extremely productive if the leader is skillful and charismatic.
103.
Groupthink characteristics cause team members to be _____ their decisions.
A.
uncomfortable with
B.
confused about
C.
hesitant and doubtful about
D.
more aware of the characteristics of
E.
highly confident in
104.
The main advantage of constructive conflict is that it:
A.
minimizes dysfunctional conflict among team members.
B.
increases the level of group polarization.
C.
removes production blocking and groupthink.
D.
encourages team members to reexamine the assumptions and logic of their preferences in the decision.
E.
helps the team to make decisions more quickly.
105.
Brainstorming requires team members to:
A.
openly criticize each other's ideas.
B.
avoid presenting ideas that seem silly.
C.
provide as many ideas as possible.
D.
present only feasible ideas in discussions.
E.
use formal norms of discussion.
106.
In which decision-making structure do participants typically meet, but only interact with each other for part of the meeting?
A.
Delphi method
B.
Nominal group technique
C.
Brainstorming
D.
Constructive conflict
E.
Electronic brainstorming
1.
Communication refers to the process by which information is transmitted and understood between two or more people.
True False
2.
Employee well-being cannot benefit from the communication experience itself though it could assist the process of employee well-being.
True False
3.
People who experience social isolation are more susceptible to physical and mental illnesses.
True False
4.
One reason that people communicate with each other is to fulfill their drive to bond.
True False
5.
In the communication process model, encoding the message refers to selecting the appropriate medium and sending your ideas through that medium.
True False
6.
According to the communication process model, communication begins with forming the message, then encoding it.
True False
7.
Intended feedback is encoded, transmitted, received, and decoded from the receiver to the sender of the original message.
True False
8.
The effectiveness of the encoding-decoding process is independent of the sender's and the receiver's proficiency with the communication channel.
True False
9.
Codebooks are symbols used to convey message content, whereas mental models are knowledge structures of the communication topic setting.
True False
10.
When sender and receiver have shared mental models, more communication is necessary to clarify meaning about that context.
True False
11.
One consequence of introducing e-mail is that it tends to decrease the amount of communication across the organization.
True False
12.
The introduction of e-mail in organizations reduces some face-to-face and telephone communication and the flow of information to higher levels in the organization.
True False
13.
E-mail is a very good medium for communicating emotions.
True False
14.
Flaming refers to the capacity of an organization to transmit information more quickly through computer networks than through traditional paper media.
True False
15.
E-mail helps organizations to significantly reduce the problem of information overload.
True False
16.
Most information is communicated verbally rather than nonverbally in quiet settings.
True False
17.
Mimicking another person's behavior and emotions is a part of emotional contagion.
True False
18.
Emotional contagion provides continuous feedback and communicates that the listener does not empathize with the sender.
True False
19.
Emotional contagion fulfills our drive to bond with others.
True False
20.
Individual preference for specific communication channels is a factor contributing to social acceptance.
True False
21.
Media
[Solved] Liberty University BUSI 340 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
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