Liberty University BUSI 313 quiz 4 complete solutions correct answers A+ work

Liberty University BUSI 313 quiz 4 complete solutions correct answers A+ work

Question 1 Disadvantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of the following EXCEPT

Question 2 Experience indicates that co­location of project teams is not worth the extra costs.

Question 3 When using the partnering approach to manage contracted relationships, each party's goals and objectives are similar but geared to what is best for them.

Question 4 Which of the following is true in regard to negotiation when managing projects?

Question 5 Principled negotiation emphasizes developing win/win solutions while protecting yourself against those who would take advantage of your forthrightness. Which of the following is NOT one of the key points of principled negotiation?

Question 6 A partnering charter states the common goals for the project as well as the procedures that will be used to achieve these goals.

Question 7 What does the acronym BATNA stand for?

Question 8 When considering principled negotiation, both buyers and sellers relying on the blue book to establish price parameters of a used car would be an example of

Question 9 Jessica just received the following information on her project: PV = 200, EV = 300, AC = 250, BAC = 1500, EAC = 1208. In terms of cost at completion.

Question 10 Which of the following is NOT true regarding scope creep?

Question 11 Because of their easy­to­understand visual format, tracking Gantt charts are the most favored, used, and understandable option for reporting project status.

Question 12 The cost variance for a project is calculated by

Question 13 A ___________ Gantt chart is a simple and effective way to depict progress on a project.

Question 14 A project control system allows for comparing actual performance against plan to identify deviations; however, the system doesn't impact the quality of communication between stakeholders.

Question 15 Which of the following are required to assess the current status of a project using the earned­value cost/schedule system?

Question 16 A CPI or SPI value less than one indicates that the project is

Question 17 Project closures can fall into all of the following categories EXCEPT

Question 18 Assessing what fundamental organizational culture properties affect project successes and failures, or become a hindrance to project teams, is a part of the retrospectives methodology.

Question 19 In organizations where projects are managed within a ____________, the team member's area manager, not the project manager, is responsible for assessing performance.

Question 20 Which part of the final report is designed to be the most useful on future projects?

Question 21 During the closing phase, the project manager's challenge is to keep the project team focused on the remaining project activities and delivery to the customer until the project is complete.

Question 22 Which of the following would NOT be appropriate to assess when evaluating team performance?

Question 23 The final report typically includes profit made on the project.

Question 24 A 360­degree performance evaluation includes feedback from peers, project managers, subordinates, and even customers.

Question 25 Performance appraisals generally fulfill two functions. The first is to identify individual strengths and weaknesses and to develop action plans for improving performance. The second involves salary or merit adjustments. Why should these two functions be addressed at different times?

1. Contracting project work has long been the norm in the _______ industry. 
A. Telecommunications
B. Financial
C. Insurance
D. Construction
E. Retail

 2. The process for the transferring of business functions or processes to other, often foreign, companies has traditionally been known as: 
A. Subcontracting
B. Downsizing
C. Partnering
D. Joint venture
E. Outsourcing

 3. When you call your Internet provider to solve a technical problem and you end up talking to a technician in India or Romania, you have just experienced: 
A. Telecommunications
B. Partnering
C. Outsourcing
D. Service shift
E. Bilingual customer service

 4. Which of the following is not a potential part of the outsourcing concept? 
A. Computers
B. Faxes
C. Computer-aided design systems
D. Video teleconferencing
E. All the above are correct

 5. Advantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of the following except 
A. Shortened project completion
B. Reduced costs
C. Higher level of expertise
D. Reduced conflict
E. Increased flexibility

 6. Disadvantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of the following except 
A. Increased conflict
B. Coordination breakdowns
C. Increased costs
D. Loss of control
E. More internal morale issues

 7. The driving motive for increasing the use of outsourcing on projects was: 
A. Reducing the trade deficit
B. Reducing costs
C. Improving international sales
D. Making products more international in design
E. Securing technology that was not available domestically

 8. Recent outsourcing trends have shown an increasing emphasis on the suppliers for all of the following except: 
A. Further cost reductions
B. Increased quality of work performed
C. Increased ability to collaborate
D. Increased ability to work together
E. All of these are recent trends

 9. Key practices in partnering relationships include: 
A. Single project contracting
B. Goals and objectives are similar
C. Access to each other's organizational resources
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

 10. In the "Competing against the Giants" Snapshot from Practice, SATT Control uses which of the following to successfully compete against much larger competitors? 
A. Excellent project management
B. Acts as a system integrator
C. Using the same subsystem vendors again and again
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

 11. hich of the following is not a key to successful partnering relationships? 
A. Mutual trust
B. Jointly shared risk
C. Total company involvement
D. Independent project teams
E. Long-term commitment

 12. Which of the following is part of the traditional project process? 
A. Structured communications
B. Long-term commitment
C. Total company involvement
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

 13. The traditional project process includes all of the following except: 
A. Independent project teams
B. Shared goals and objectives
C. Single project teams
D. Risk is transferred to the other party
E. Limited objectivity

 14. Which of the following did the state of Ohio do before starting a bond-financed school construction project? 
A. Create a specific RFP (request for proposal)
B. Have a dress rehearsal
C. Reviews the performance of contractors on past projects
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

 15. Best practices in outsourcing project work include all the following except: 
A. Well defined requirements and procedures
B. Training and teambuilding activities
C. Well established conflict management processes
D. Frequent reviews and status updates
E. All of these are best practices

 16. In the Snapshot from Practice "Strategies for Communicating with Outsourcers," which of the following was not one of the suggested strategies? 
A. Recognize cultural differences
B. Use a translator to make sure everyone understands
C. Choose the right words
D. Confirm your requirements
E. Set deadlines

 17. To make sure that an outsourcer thoroughly understands your requirements you should: 
A. Document your conversations in writing
B. Insist that the outsourcer write the requirements in their own words
C. Request they build a prototype
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

 18. The result of teambuilding among the project's participants is a: 
A. Signed contract
B. Legal partnership agreement
C. Project plan
D. Partnering charter
E. Responsibility matrix

 19. To avoid problems with schedules and deadlines you should: 
A. Develop detailed schedules
B. Hold frequent status reviews
C. Add a penalty clause to the contract
D. Hold frequent conversations with the outsourcer
E. Build extra time into the schedules that the outsourcer is not aware of

 20. Among the many advantages for establishing long-term partnerships are: 
A. Reduced administrative costs
B. Improved performance
C. Improved communication
D. B and C are both correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

 21. Long-term partnerships will provide all the following except: 
A. Improved communication
B. More efficient utilization of resources
C. Reduced need for total number of partnerships
D. Lower administrative costs
E. Improved innovation

 22. Teambuilding between partners should: 
A. Include engineers, architects, lawyers, specialists and other staff
B. Be facilitated by an outside consultant
C. Not take more than one day
D. A and B are both correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

 23. Which of the following would be included in best practices in outsourcing project work? 
A. Establishing long-term relationships
B. Include financial incentives
C. Reduce costs by using tried and true methods
D. A and B are both correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

 24. In the Snapshot from Practice dealing with the Value Engineering Awards program, which branch of the U.S. government was involved? 
A. Department of Defense
B. Department of Commerce
C. Department of Transportation
D. N.A.S.A
E. Department of Education

 25. Which of the following is not one of the key points of principled negotiation? 
A. Use objective criteria when possible
B. Be honest and forthright
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Separate the people from the problem
E. Invent options for mutual gain

 26. Customer satisfaction can be quantitified by: 
A. Perceived performance divided by actual performance
B. Actual performance divided by expected performance
C. Perceived performance divided by expected performance
D. Actual performance divided by perceived performance
E. Expected performance divided by actual performance

 27. Which of the following is a part of the noncompetitive view of negotiation? 
A. Reaching an agreement
B. Implementation phase
C. Review of the completed project
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

 28. Which of the following is suggested as the best target for a customer satisfaction ratio? 
A. 1.00
B. 1.05
C. 1.10
D. 1.20
E. 1.50

 29. In the research highlight on IT project managers, which of the following was not one of the roles taken by project managers? 
A. Entrepreneur
B. Politician
C. Friend
D. Marketer
E. Auditor

 30. Regarding customer relations, advice passed on by veteran project managers includes: 
A. Speak with one voice
B. Speak in precise terms
C. Speak the language of the customer
D. Both A and B are correct
E. Both A and C are correct

 31. Which of the following is not one of the elements of good negotiation? 
A. Be hard on the problem, soft on the people
B. Conflict on a project can be good
C. Negotiation is not a contest
D. Seek first to understand, then to be understood
E. All of these are elements of good negotiation

 32. Which of the following is reflected in the saying "Let anger fly out the window"? 
A. Separate people from the problem
B. Be honest
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Invent options for mutual gain
E. When possible, use objective criteria

 33. Which of the following is reflected in the saying "Seek first to understand, then to be understood"? 
A. Separate people from the problem
B. Be honest
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Invent options for mutual gain
E. When possible, use objective criteria

 34. The dovetailing technique is used in which of the following keys to good negotiation? 
A. Separate people from the problem
B. Be honest
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Invent options for mutual gain
E. When possible, use objective criteria

35. Contracting project work has long been the norm in the __________ industry. 
 36. The __________ project, which created a transportation tunnel between France and England, involved more than 250 organizations. 
 37. In a partnering relationship, ________ is shared jointly among the partners, which encourages innovation and continuous improvement. 
 38. In a partnering relationship, ________ forms the basis for strong working relationships. 
 39. In traditional project relationships, ________ is limited due to fear of reprisal and lack of continuous improvement opportunity. 
40. In traditional project relationships, ________ are structured and guarded. 
41. In Ohio before starting a bond-financed ____________, projects management consultants and the related parties get together to figure out how to talk to each others and how to handle problems. 
42. The term __________ has traditionally been applied to the transferring of business functions or processes to other, often foreign, companies. 
43. Many outsourced projects operate in a _________ environment in which people are linked by computers, faxes, computer-aided design systems, and video teleconferencing. 
44. __________ is a major advantage of outsourcing project work because companies can secure competitive prices for contracted services, especially if the work can be outsourced offshore. 
45. Not only can contracted project work be cheaper, it can also be done __________. 
46. High levels of __________ and technology can be brought to bear on a project by using contracted services. 
47. Contracting project services can increase a firm's _________ by no longer being constrained by their own resources. 
48. Breakdowns in __________ of professionals from different organizations can occur if the project work requires close collaboration and mutual adjustment. 
49. In the Snapshot from Practice involving SATT Control, a Swedish electronics firm, the company referred to one of its competencies as being a ________ who subcontracts the subsystems to other firms. 
50. There is a potential loss of __________ over a project when the core team depends on other organizations that they do not have direct authority over. 
51. Projects are more prone to interpersonal _________ because the different participants do not share the same values, priorities, and culture. 
52. There is little disagreement that __________ was the primary motive behind outsourcing project work. 
53. Fisher and Ury champion the ________ approach to negotiation because it emphasizes win/win solutions while protecting yourself against those who would take advantage of your forthrightness. 
54. ________ satisfaction is measured by the ratio of perceived performance to expected performance. 
55. The best defense against unreasonable, win/lose negotiators is having what Fisher and Ury call a strong __________. 
56. As part of an effort to cut costs the United States Department of Defense issues annual __________. 
57. "Let anger fly out of the window" is an example of the ___________ key point of negotiation. 
58. Explaining why a critical task must be done by a specific time is an example of the ___________ key point of negotiation. 
59. Dividing perceived performance by expected performance will calculate __________. 
60. Toyota and Daimen-Chrysler collaborating with suppliers to develop new automobile platforms is an example of outsourcing. 
61. Participants from different organizations working close together at the construction site or in shared office space is an example of a virtual team. 
62. Working in outsourcing teams, projects can be completed faster and more cheaply. 
63. Increased conflict and loss of coordination are typical disadvantages of outsourcing project work. 
64. Trust can be difficult to forge when interactions are limited and people come from different organizations. 
65. In partnering, access to each other's organization resources is available.
66. In the traditional method of managing projects, total company involvement requires commitment from CEO to team members.
67. In partnering, each party's goals and objectives are similar but geared to what is best for them.
68. As part of an effort to cut costs, the United States Department of Defense issues annual Value Engineering Awards. 
69. In some countries, laws are considered to be guidelines that are not necessarily followed. 
70. For people in some countries, a written, signed contract is merely a suggestion. 
71. Because English is the language of business, it is not necessary to speak in a direct manner using short sentences made of basic, simple words as this may taken as an insult. 
72. All conversations with outsourcers should be followed up with commitments documented in writing since they are likely to understand written English better than spoken English. 
73. Experience indicates that co-location of project teams is not worth the extra costs. 
74. A partnering charter states the common goals for the project as well as the procedures that will be used to achieve these goals. 
75. It is a good idea to add a penalty clause to an outsourcing agreement because deadlines are often taken as a suggestion rather than a commitment. 
76. A prime consideration in choosing outsourcing vendors is to assess the fit with their project management system. 
77. Team-building workshops with outsourcing vendors is usually led by an outside consultant who is an expert in designing and facilitating such workshops. 
78. In project negotiation each negotiator is out to win as much as he or she can for their side. 
79. Principled Negotiation emphasizes developing win/win solutions while protecting yourself against those who would take advantage of your forthrightness. 
80. By keeping the focus on the issues and not the personalities, negotiators are better able to let the other person blow off steam. 
81. The best defense against unreasonable, win/lose negotiators is having what Fisher and Ury call a strong BATNA. 
82. A value of 1.5 is the accepted target for the Met-Expectations model of customer satisfaction. 
 

1. A project monitoring system involves all of the following EXCEPT 
A. Determining what data to collect
B. Determining how, when, and who will collect the data
C. Adjusting the data
D. Analysis of the data
E. Reporting current progress

2. Nancy tells her supervisor that as of right now, $1.05 worth of work has been accomplished for each $1 worth of scheduled work.  Nancy got this information from viewing the

A. SV
B. TCPI
C. CPI
D. SPI
E. PCIB

3. Jessica just received the following information on her project: PV = 200, EV = 300, AC = 250, BAC = 1500, EAC = 1208.  In terms of cost at completion

A. The project will currently finish under budget
B. The project will currently finish over budget
C. The project will currently finish on budget
D. The project will currently finish behind schedule
E. There is insufficient information to draw conclusions

4. The first step in the project control process for measuring and evaluating project performance is to 
A. Set a baseline plan
B. Determine the project objectives
C. Determine the project deliverables
D. Analyze the project budget
E. Review the project priority matrix

5. The second step in the project control process for measuring and evaluating project performance is to 
A. Review the baseline plan with top management
B. Analyze inputs to control system
C. Compare plan against actual
D. Measure progress and performance
E. Review spending with team members

6. The third step in the project control process for measuring and evaluating project performance is to 
A. Review the baseline plan with top management
B. Analyze inputs to the control system
C. Compare the plan against actual performance
D. Measure both progress and performance
E. Review spending with team members

7.  The final step in the project control process for measuring and evaluating project performance is to 

A. Take appropriate action
B. Prepare a report to top management
C. Follow up on corrective action
D. Measure progress and performance
E. Review spending with team members

8. In monitoring project time (schedule) performance, actual performance should be compared to 
A. Budgets for the current year
B. Top management's targets
C. Project network schedule derived from the WBS/OBS
D. Progress on similar past projects
E. Previous status reports

9. A ___________ Gantt chart is a simple and effective way to depict progress on a project. A. Baseline
B. Control
C. Variance
D. Tracking
E. Simple

10. A tool used to monitor past project schedule performance and current performance, and to estimate future schedule trends is a simple line chart known as a
A. Project schedule control chart
B. Gantt chart
C. PERT chart
D. Network diagram
E. Milestone chart

11. The earned value system starts with the time-phased costs that provide the project baseline, which is called the

A. Planned budgeted value of work scheduled
B. Planned budgeted value of work completed
C. Earned value of work scheduled
D. Scheduled value of work scheduled
E. Scheduled value of work completed

12. The earned value of a project is the 
A. Project cost to date adjusted for project scope changes
B. Total project cost to date
C. Cost incurred minus the planned cost
D. Percent of the original budget that has been earned by actual work
E. The planned time-phased baseline of the value of work scheduled

13. The cost variance for a project is calculated by 
A. EV - AC
B. AC - SV
C. PV - EV
D. CU - EV
E. EU - PV

14. The schedule variance for a project is calculated by: 
A. EV - AC
B. AC - SV
C. PV - EV
D. CU - EV
E. EV - PV

15. Baseline project budgets are derived from 
A. The organization's overall budget
B. Time-phasing the work packages
C. Top management directions
D. The total direct, direct project overhead and G&A overhead costs
E. The earned value system

16. Of the following costs, which are NOT included in baseline? 
A. Suppliers
B. Equipment
C. Labor
D. Budget reserves
E. Contractors

17. When someone familiar with each task estimates what percent of the task has been completed or how much of the task remains, they are creating a method for assigning costs to the baseline called the  
A. 0/100 percent rule
B. Task complete rule
C. Degree complete rule
D. Work complete rule
E. Percent complete rule

18. Which performance index is the most potentially misleading? 
A. CPI

B. EV
C. CV
D. SV
E. EAC

19. Which of the following are required to assess the current status of a project using the earned-value cost/schedule system? 
A. BAC, EAC, and ETC
B. VAC, EAC, and BAC
C. CV, SU, and BAC
D. PV, EV, and AC
E. TCPI, EV, and PV

20. Which of the following methods of variance analysis is the best indicator of how far off the budget a project will be at completion? 
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. VAC
E. TCPI

21. Which of the following methods will measure the cost efficiency of the work accomplished to date? 
A. SV/CV
B. EV/PV
C. EV/AC
D. AC/SV
E. AC/CV

22. Which of the following methods will measure the scheduling efficiency of the work accomplished to date? 
A. SV/CV
B. EV/PV
C. EV/AC
D. AC/SV
E. AC/CV

23. A CPI or SPI value less than one indicates that the project is 
A. Under cost or behind schedule
B. Over cost or ahead of schedule
C. Under cost or ahead of schedule
D. Over cost or behind schedule
E. On cost or on schedule

24. The value that tells you the planned value of work that has actually been completed is the
A. SV
B. PV
C. EV
D. AC
E. CV

25. The indicator that tells you the amount each remaining dollar must earn in order for the project to stay within budget is the

A. PCIC
B. VAC
C. CPI
D. SPI
E. TCPI

26. A project manager learns that the project is only earning $.90 of planned work for each dollar spent by looking at the

A. EV
B. BAC
C. SV
D. SPI
E. CPI

27. A project manager notices that $1,000 worth of work that was scheduled to be completed at this time has not been accomplished.  They know this by looking at the

A. EV
B. TCPI
C. SV
D. PCIB
E. EAC

28. Sally receives the following information on her project: PV = 100, AC = 75, EV = 100.  How well is the project doing in terms of budget?

A. Right on budget

B. 25 under budget
C. 25 over budget
D. 50 under budget
E. 50 over budget

29. Jim receives the following information on his project: PV = 1000, EV = 1200, AC = 800, BAC = 2000, EAC = 1333.  How is the project doing in terms of schedule?

A. More work has been done than planned
B. Less work has been done than planned
C. The same amount of work has been done than planned
D. The project has cost less than planned
E. There is not enough information to draw a conclusion

30. Which of the following is NOT true regarding scope creep? 
A. It commonly occurs late in projects
B. It is frequently unnoticed until time delays or cost overruns are observed
C. It wears down team motivation and cohesiveness
D. Project suppliers resent frequent changes
E. Scope changes can represent significant opportunity

31. ________ holds people accountable, prevents small problems from mushrooming into large problems, and keeps focus. 
32. The first step in creating a project control system for measuring and evaluating project performance is to set a ________. 
33. The value that tells you the planned value of the actual work completed is ___________.

34. When someone familiar with each task estimates what percent of the task has been completed or how much of the task remains, they are creating a method for assigning costs to the baseline called the ____________ rule.
35. Because of their easy-to-understand visual format, ________ charts are the most favored, used, and understandable tool used to report project schedule status. 
36. The indicator that tells you the planned time-phased value of the work that is scheduled is the _______________.

37. Baseline project budgets are derived from time-phasing the work ________.

38. The ________ variance is the difference between the earned value and the actual costs for the work completed to date. 
39. The ________ variance is the difference between the earned value to date and the baseline schedule. 
40. ________ is simply the percent complete times the original budget. 
41. Conditions or scope can change, which, in turn, will require a change to the __________ plan to recognize the new information.

42. The project network schedule is derived from the _______ and it serves as the baseline to compare against actual performance. 

43. A negative CV indicates the project is ________ budget.
44. The ________ rule assumes credit is earned for having performed the work once it is completed.  This rule is usually used for work packages having very short durations.

45. The ratio that measures the amount of value each remaining dollar in the budget must earn to stay within the budget is the _________.

46. The _________ index measures the project percent complete in relation to the resources that were budgeted.

47. Given that the AC = 300, PV = 400 and EV = 500, this project is _________ budget. 
48. Given a BAC of 5,500 and an EAC of 6,000, the project is expected to be completed _________ budget.

49. An SPI index of 1.22 indicates that the project is ________ schedule. 
50. Although it is very difficult to measure, measuring ________ performance is as important as measuring schedule and cost performance. 
51. The final step in the project control process for measuring and evaluating project performance is to take appropriate ________.
52. In some cases, conditions or scope can change, which, in turn, will require a change in the baseline plan to recognize new information. 
53. The PCIC index measures the project percent complete in relation to the resources that have actually been used so far on the project. 
54. The only accurate method for determining the true time progress of the project is to compare the project network schedule against the actual network schedule to measure if the project is on time.

55. Schedule variance measures progress in time units.

56. Earned value is defined as the budgeted cost of the actual work performed. 
57. The baseline is derived from merging information from the work packages with the project network. 
58. Because of their easy-to-understand visual format, tracking Gantt charts are the most favored, used, and understandable option for reporting project status.
59. The PV, AC and CV are all required to assess the current status of the project.

60. When revising the estimated cost at completion, there are two approaches.  The EACre is determined by experts in the field and the EACf is a mathematical approach which assumes the CPI as the basis for forecasting cost at completion.

61. The best method for assigning costs to the baseline under the 50/50 rule is to establish frequent checkpoints over the duration of the work package and assign completion percentages in dollar terms. 
62. Most changes will not result in serious scope changes and should be absorbed as positive or negative variances. 

63. A “rubber baseline” occurs when, in an effort to disguise poor performance, the baseline changes to constantly match results.

64. Baseline costs typically include labor, equipment, materials and direct overhead cost. 
65. A project control system allows for comparing actual performance against plan to identify deviations; however, the system doesn’t impact the quality of communication between stakeholders.

66. Two major reasons for creating a baseline are to monitor and report progress and to estimate cash flow.

67. In calculating schedule variance and cost variance, a negative variance indicates a desirable condition, and a positive variance suggests problems. 
68. An undesirable schedule variance always indicates that the project is running behind schedule. 
69. Progress and performance can be measured quantitatively as well as qualitatively.

70. A CPI index of 0.97 indicates that the project has spent less money than budgeted.
71. Rachel notices that the current EV for her project is higher than both the PV and the AC.  Rachel has reason to be concerned.

72. All scope changes that result in increased costs should be avoided. 
73. Although it is very difficult to measure, measuring technical performance is as important as measuring schedule and cost performance. 
74. Deciding what data to collect, actually collecting the data and analyzing it, and reporting this data are all parts of structuring a project monitoring information system. 
75. A project manager would be glad to see a TCPI of 1.07.
76. A negative VAC indicates that the project will be completed over budget.

1. The most common circumstance for project closure is simply a ________ project. 
A. Completed
B. Overdue
C. Over-budget
D. Underachieving
E. Successful

2. Which of the following is NOT a wrap-up closure activity that might be found on a checklist? 
A. Getting delivery acceptance from the customer
B. Reassigning project team members
C. Closing accounts and seeing all bills are paid
D. Evaluation of team performance
E. Creating a final report

3. __________ of lessons learned are designed to improve performance on current and future projects. 
A. Retrospectives
B. Corrective action plans
C. Introspectives
D. Culminations
E. Evolutions

4. The content of the final report typically includes the following topics EXCEPT 
A. Lessons learned
B. Review and analysis
C. Recommendations
D. Executive summary
E. Team reviews

5. When the project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated this is considered to be ___________ closure. 
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Changed Priority
E. Failed Project

6. This type of closure occurs when the project may never seem to end. At some point the review group should recommend methods for bringing final closure to this type of project. This is considered to be ___________ closure. 
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Changed Priority
E. Failed Project

7. Because of circumstances beyond the control of the project team, many projects are easy for a review group to close down.  This type of project closure is called
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Failed Project
E. Changed Priority

8. When a project starts with a high priority but it is cancelled because its rank erodes or crashes during its project life cycle, this is an example of what type of project closure?
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Failed Project
E. Changed Priority

9. Which of the following summarizes project performance and provides useful information for continuous improvement?

A. Customer acceptance
B. The final report
C. Team evaluation
D. 360-degree feedback
E. Project summary

10. Which part of the final report highlights the key findings and facts relating to the project implementation? 
A. Executive summary
B. Review and analysis
C. Recommendations

D. Lessons learned
E. Appendix

11. Which part of the final report examines in detail the underlying causes of problems, issues, and successes relative to the project and includes concise, factual review statements of the project?

A. Executive summary
B. Review and analysis
C. Recommendations

D. Lessons learned
E. Appendix

12. Which part of the final report presents major improvement actions that should be made?

A. Executive summary
B. Review and analysis
C. Recommendations

D. Lessons learned
E. Appendix

13. Which part of the final report is designed to be the most useful on future projects?

A. Executive summary
B. Review and analysis
C. Recommendations

D. Lessons learned
E. Appendix

14. Which part of the final report includes backup data or details of analysis that would allow others to follow up if they wished?
A. Executive summary
B. Review and analysis
C. Recommendations

D. Lessons learned
E. Appendix

15. The purpose of project evaluation is to assess how well

A. The project team performed
B. The team members performed
C. The project manager performed
D. The project team and team members performed
E. The project team, team members and the project manager performed

16. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate to assess when evaluating team performance?

A. How well the team performed in terms of time, cost, and specifications

B. Effectiveness of group decisions
C. Individual strengths and weaknesses
D. Customer satisfaction with project deliverables
E. Trust among group members

17. Before an evaluation of the project team can be effective and useful, a minimum core of conditions needs to be in place before the project begins.  Which of the following would NOT be one of those conditions?

A. Individuals have the skillset necessary to successfully complete the project
B. Evaluation criteria beyond time, cost and specifications has been established
C. Rewards are adequate
D. Individual and team responsibilities and performance standards are known by all team members
E. Standards for measuring performance exist

18. Performance appraisals generally fulfill two functions.  The first is to identify individual strengths and weaknesses and to develop action plans for improving performance.  The second involves salary or merit adjustments.  Why should these two functions be addressed at different times?

A. It is too much information to discuss at once

B. Employees are so eager to learn about a potential raise that they tend to tune out constructive feedback
C. Managers tend to spend too much time talking about how the employee can improve his or her performance and not on justifying the salary adjustment
D. If employees are upset over a salary adjustment, they will not be open to listening to ways they can improve.
E. If the manager is giving employees bad news regarding their salary adjustment, they will not be honest about the employees’ weaknesses and will tend to focus on their strengths.

19. The following are general tips for conducting performance reviews EXCEPT

A. Begin the process by asking the individual to evaluate his or her own contributions to the project
B. Use other team members’ performance as a method to compare and evaluate
C. When you have to be critical, focus the criticism on specific examples of behavior and not on the individual personally
D. Be fair and consistent in your treatment of all team members
E. Treat the review as only one point in an ongoing process

20. An analysis carried out during and shortly after the project life cycle that attempts to capture positive and negative learning is represented in which of the following?

A. Scenario analysis
B. Variance analyses
C. Lessons learned
D. Performance evaluation
E. Strategic objectives

21. The process for capturing lessons learned continues to evolve, but there are still many barriers to effectively capitalizing on lessons learned that have been identified.  The following are examples of these barriers EXCEPT

A. Lack of time
B. Teams get little direction or support after lessons are reported
C. Lessons learned often degenerate into blame sessions
D. Lessons learned are being used across different locations
E. The organizational culture doesn’t support the effort that it takes to capitalize on lessons learned

22. The following are distinguishing characteristics of retrospectives methodology EXCEPT

A. Uses an independent facilitator

B. Establishes in-process learning gates during the project life cycle
C. An owner, typically a team member, is assigned
D. Reviews cannot be linked to percent complete
E. A repository is developed that is easy to use

23. Project closures can fall into all of the following categories EXCEPT 
A. Premature
B. Perpetual
C. Failed
D. Changed priority
E. Successful

24. A guide who leads the project team through an analysis of project activities that went well and of what needs improvement and development of a follow-up action plan with goals and accountability is a(n)

A. Owner
B. Project sponsor
C. Project manager
D. Facilitator
E. Mediator

25.  It is imperative that the closure facilitator possess the following characteristics EXCEPT

A. Has direct involvement or direct interest in the project

B. Is perceived as impartial and fair
C. Has respect for senior management and other project stakeholders
D. Willing to listen
E. Is perceived as having the best interests of the organization in making decisions

26. The typical mechanism for the evaluation of teams is normally 
A. A survey completed by the team members
B. A personal interview of each team member
C. An analysis by an outside consultant
D. A survey completed by members of top management
E. A survey completed by the internal or external customers

27. More and more companies are discarding the traditional superior-subordinate performance feedback process and replacing it with a multi-rater appraisal called
A. Critical incidences review
B. Management by objectives
C. The 360-degree feedback
D. Team evaluation survey
E. Retrospectives

28. Which of the following is NOT a role of the closure facilitator?

A. Create an environment in which stakeholders feel safe to provide input
B. Lead the team in exploring new ways for solving problems
C. Use several questionnaires as a starting point to conduct the post-project retrospective

D. Get delivery acceptance from the customer
E. Elicit a 360-degree view and input from all stakeholders to create a more complete picture of project issues

29. In organizations where projects are managed within a ____________, the team member's area manager, not the project manager, is responsible for assessing performance. 
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Flat organization
D. Project organization
E. Strong organization

30. Each retrospective is assigned a(n) _________, typically a team member who is very interested in and familiar with the retrospective.  This individual will serve as the contact point for anyone needing information relating to the retrospective.

A. Owner
B. Project sponsor
C. Project manager
D. Facilitator
E. Mediator

31. ________ project closure is the most common circumstance for project closure and is simply a completed project. 
32. When a project is completed early with some parts of the project eliminated this is known as _________ project closure. 
33. A ____________ project closure is usually easy to identify and easy for a review group to close down. 
34. Projects in process may need to be altered or canceled. Thus, a project may start with a high priority but see its rank erode or crash during its project life cycle as conditions change. This is called __________project closure. 
35. When the review group recommends methods for bringing final closure to a project that never seems it will end, this is an example of a ________ project closure.

36. Within the final report, a summary that simply highlights the key findings and facts relating to project implementation is called the ___________ summary. 
37. Implementing the closure process includes several _______ activities, including getting delivery acceptance from the customer.

38. The ________ section of the final project report includes concise, factual review statements of the project, such as project mission and objectives, procedure