TEST BANK Primary Professional Military Education BLOCK 2,3,4,5 & 6

Primary Professional Military Education
THE CULTURE OF THE NAVY (BLOCK 2) 5
ENLISTED PROFESSIONALISM 5
Military Formations 5
Military Uniforms, Customs, and Courtesies 6
Fleet Response Plan 7
Chief Petty Officer History, Duties, and Responsibilities 8
Overview of Manpower Management for the Senior Enlisted Leader 9
CUSTOMS, HONORS, AND TRADITIONS 10
Naval Customs 10
NAVY FLEETS 11
Second and Fourth Fleets 11
Fifth Fleet 12
Sixth Fleet 13
Pacific Fleet 14
CUSTOMS, HONORS, AND TRADITIONS 15
Customs and Traditions 15
Ships - Customs and Traditions 16
Honors and Ceremonies 17
ETHICS AND PROFESSIONALISM FOR THE WARFIGHTER 18
Military Ethics Overview 18
Ethics in the Profession of Arms 19
Ethics and the Warfighter 21
The Just War Tradition 23
Standards of Conduct and Gov. Ethics 24
Lawful and Unlawful Orders 25
GOVERNANCE OF THE NAVY (BLOCK 3) 27
ROLES, MISSIONS, AND FUNCTIONS OF THE DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY 27
Roles and functions 27
NATIONAL MILITARY ORGANIZATION 28
NMO 28
STRATEGIC PLANNING AND GUIDANCE 29
Strategic Guidance for the Armed Forces 29
Joint Vision for Future Warfighting 30
Sea Power 21 31
Cooperative Maritime Strategy 32
HOW THE NAVY THINKS ABOUT WAR (BLOCK
4) 33
THE AMERICAN WAY OF WAR 33
The American Way of War 33
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THE NAVAL WAY OF WAR 35
The Naval Way of War 35
THE NAVAL WAY OF WAR 2 37
The Naval Way of War 2 37
DOCTRINE 39
Doctrine 39
NAVAL WARFARE 40
JFMCC-CCW 40
Command and Control (C2) 40
Joint force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) 41
Composite Warfare Commander Concept 42
CWC Roles and Responsibilities 43
JFMCC/CWC Challenges 44
Strike Warfare 45
Origins and Development 45
Carrier Strike Groups 47
The Aircraft Carrier 48
Carrier Air Wing 49
Tomahawk Land Attack Missile 50
Expeditionary Warfare 51
Intro to Expeditionary Warfare Operations 51
Domains of Force Employment 52
Surface Warfare (SUW) 52
Air Defense 53
Undersea Warfare 55
Naval Special Warfare 57
Naval Logistics 58
Naval Logistics 58
JOINT WARFARE 59
Fundamentals of Joint Warfare 59
Fundamentals of Information Operations 60
FORCE CAPABILITIES 61
United States Army 61
United States Air Force 63
United States Marine Corps 64
United States Coast Guard 65
Special Operation Forces 66
RANGE OF MILITARY OPERATIONS 67
Homeland Security Homeland Defense 67
Irregular Warfare 68
HOW THE NAVY PLANS ITS OPERATIONS
(BLOCK 5) 69
REGIONAL AND CULTURAL AWARENESS 69
Political Stuctures 69
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GEOPOLITICAL CULTURE 71
Cultural Explanations of Political Behavior 71
Democracy and Nationalism 73
The Future of Democracy and Democratization 74
REGIONAL 75
Western Hemisphere 75
Western Hemisphere 75
Latin American Militaries 78
Eurasia 79
Eurasia 79
European Union 81
Africa 82
Africa 82
Religions of Africa 83
African Security 84
Asia Pacific 85
Asia Pacific Overview 85
Partition of the Indian Subcontinent 86
China: Alone and Joining the World 88
China Security Issues 89
China Environment and Development 90
China Ethnicity/Nationality and Development 91
The Arctic 92
The Arctic 92
INDIAN OCEAN 94
The Indian Ocean 94
Great Middle East 96
Greater Middle East Overview 96
The Arab-Israeli Conflict 97
U.S. Security, Strategy, and Policy 98
Islam in the Greater Middle East 99
OPERATIONAL PLANNING 100
Introduction to Planning 100
The Role of Intelligence 101
Navy Planning Process 103
MARITIME CYBERSPACE OPERATIONS 104
Maritime Cyberspace Operations 104
OPERATIONAL LAW 105
Law of the Sea and Airspace 105
Law of the Sea and Airspace 105
Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) 106
Law of Armed Conflict, Scope 106
Law of Armed Conflict, Principles 108
Rules of Engagement 109
Rules of Engagement, General Principles 109
Standing Rules of Engagement 110
Self-Defense 112
MISSION ACCOMPLISHMENT 113
Rules for the Use of Force 115
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TECHNOLOGY IN THE MARITIME DOMAIN
(BLOCK 6) 116
SENSORS 116
Force Multiplication Sensors 116
Sensor Fundamentals 118
Understanding the Frequency Spectrum 119
Sensor Challenges for Modern Combat Systems 120
Maintaining Technical Superiority 121
Magnetic Sensors 122
Sonar 123
Radar 124
Electro-optic Technology 125
SPACE FORCE ENHANCEMENT 126
Military Space Mission Areas 126
Intelligence Surveillance Reconnaissance 127
Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment 128
Environmental Monitoring 129
Satellite Communications 130
Position, Time, Velocity, and Navigation 132
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND FORCENET 133
Data and Information 133
Command and Control (C2) 134
Decision Making 135
FORCEnet 136
COMMUNICATIONS FOR THE WARFIGHTER 138
Communications for the warfighter 138
STEALTH TECHNOLOGY 139
Stealth Technology 139
EVALUATION OF NAVAL PLATFORMS 140
Evolution of the US Submarine 140
Evolution of the US Navy Surface Combatants 141
Evolution of Carrier Aviation 142
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2The Culture of the Navy (Block 2)
Enlisted Professionalism
2.1.1Military Formations
Q1: Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits?
A: Precision and automatic response
Q2: Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner?
A: From most junior to senior
Q3: Which of the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection?
A: To use as a tool to punish your Sailors
Q4: As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the following
occasions?
A: Awards ceremony
Q5: During the Revolutionary War, ______________ developed a set of standardized drills for
General George Washington and the Continental Army.
A: Baron von Steuben
Q6:Which event would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man the
rails?
A: Leaving the shipyards after 120 days
Q7:Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”?
A: Baron von Steuben
Q8:What type of command is the first word in “Parade Rest”?
A: Preparatory
Q9: At the beginning of the Revolutionary War, ______________ was the leaders' primary tool
to achieve discipline in ranks.
A: fear
Q10: What do you call the extreme right or left of an element?
A: Flank
Q11: As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what
position?
A: Attention
Q12: Sailors are in a _____________, when placed in formation one behind the other?
A: File
Q13: Which of the following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military
quarters?
A: Refueling evolution
Q14: What is the distance between ranks?
A: 40
Q15: A/an__________ can be a single person or a section of a larger formation.
A: Element
Q16: When giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voice?
A: Inflection
Q17: What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an
inspection of the sailors?
A: OPEN RANKS
Q18: As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your
Sailors?
A: Prior to the seasonal uniform change
Q19: Which of the following is NOT one of the principles behind an awards system?
A: Every Sailor should get an award after a command evolution for the sake of equity and good
morale
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2.1.2Military Uniforms, Customs, and
Courtesies
1 When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who renders the hand salute?
A: The right front passenger seat salutes
Q20: What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms?
A: The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations
Q21: When walking with a senior, what side do you walk on?
A: Left
Q22: Who exits a military vehicle first?
A: The senior leaves first
Q23: How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army?
A: The hat insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal
Q24: What is the U.S. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade?
A: Sergeant Major
Q25: What is meant by “under arms”?
A: When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon
Q26: At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer?
A: At six paces or closest point of approach
Q27: The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of?
A: Chief Master Sergeant
Q28: What is the definition of “prescribable” items?
A: Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may
be worn with basic uniforms at the individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed.
Q29: What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade?
A: Staff Sergeant
Q30: What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign?
A: Salute
Q31: During the navy’s early years, enlisted uniforms were prescribed by ______”
A: Individual ship captains
Q32: Which of the following is not a responsibility of senior Non-commissioned officers?
A: Make difficult decisions for junior officers
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2.1.3Fleet Response Plan
1 Presence with a purpose” provides what?
A: routine, pulse
Q33: Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption
of FRP?
A: 2001 Quadrennial Defense Review
Q34: Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month
inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)?
A: Commander, Fleet Forces Command
Q35: When is a CSG considered surge ready?
A: When they have completed integrated phase training
Q36: The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories?
A: Maintenance
A: Emergency surge, surge ready surge deploy
A: Emergency surge, surge ready, routine
Q37: The Fleet Response Plan is often referred to as what?
A: Fleet Readiness Plan
Q38: What time frame does the Fleet Response Plan use as its cycle?
A: A 27-month cycle
Q39: At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is?
A: a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan
Q40: The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable
within 30 days?
A: 6
Q41: When a ship, sub, or squadron is considered routine deployable?
A: After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of
underway …
Q42: Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the
Fleet?
A: Sea Basing
Q43: What does the 6 + 2 plan provide?
A: 6 CSG available to deploy within 30 days
Q44: Due to the war on terror, Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S. Navy to
do what?
A: Maintain its relevance
Q45: Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan, a carrier strike group is surge ready for how
many months?
A: 16 Months
Q46: The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to
embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such as?
A: homeland defense
Q47: When is a CSG considered in emergency surge status?
A: When they have successfully completed their unit level phase training phase
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2.1.4Chief Petty Officer History, Duties, and
Responsibilities
Q48: The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was
the?
A: hat device
Q49: Which regulation established the grade of chief petty officer on 1 April 1893?
A: U.S. Navy Regulation Circular Number 1
General Order Number 409
Q50: On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty
officer. Which of the following was a defined role?
A: The top technical authority and expert within a rating
Q51: The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to?
A: Represent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on professional and personnel issues
Q52: The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change?
A: It designated chief petty officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1
Q53: What initiative led directly to the recommendation for establishing the billet of Master
Chief Petty Officer of the Navy?
A: The Retention Task Force of 1964
Q54: In the early 1900’s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first?
A: Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command
Q55: During the early 1900’s, chief petty officers could receive a permanent appointment
based on?
A: Satisfactory performance, as evaluated by the commanding officer
Q56: On 28 April 1967, ____________ became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy.
A: GMCM Delbert Black
Q57: What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy?
A: Report to CNP
A: Travel extensively
Q58: On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first?
A: Senior Enlisted Advisor of the Navy
Q59: The duties and responsibilities of a Master Chief Petty Officer in 1978 were?
A: broadened to include contributing to command-level policy formulation
Q60: The paygrades of Senior Chief and Master Chief Petty Officer were established in
what year?
A: 1958
Q61: The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to?
A: Strengthen chief petty officer standards
Q62: According to the 1918 Bluejacket’s Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were
______
A: Technical expert and example setter
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2.1.5Overview of Manpower Management for
the Senior Enlisted Leader
1 TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for?
A: resource sponsors
Q63: Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
A: Environment in which a command is expected to operate
Q64: Changes to the AMD can come from what factors?
A: Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform
Q65: OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is
to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for ______________.
A: national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors
Q66: Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
A: Environment in which a command is expected to operate
Q67: Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on
available funding and ____:
A: warfare sponsor requirements
Q68: Where do you find current and future peacetime and mobilization manpower
requirements and authorizations?
A: Activity Manning Document (AMD)
Q69: Who prepares the statements detailing Required Operational Capability (ROC)?
A: Mission and warfare sponsors
Q70: OPNAV Instruction 1000.16, Manual of Navy Total Force Manpower Policies and
Procedures, defines manpower management as a?
A: methodical process
Q71: In manpower management, commands are responsible for what?
A: Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements
Q72: For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform
placement functions?
A: Enlisted
Q73: The methodical process of determining, validating, and using manpower
requirements as a basis for budget decisions defines ______________.
A: manpower management
Q74: The AMD is a single source document that provides?
A: Quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements
Q75: How often is the EDVR published?
A: Monthly
Q76: What is the single authoritative database for MPN manpower authorizations and end
strength?
A: Total Force Manpower Management System (TFFMS)
Q77: Where do you find personnel strength planning, recruiting, training, and personnel
distribution?
A: AMD
Q78: Which document defines military manpower authorizations allocated to a naval
activity?
A: POE
Q79: Placement is an advocate for________ and detailers are advocates for__________.
A: Sailors, Navy
Q80: What allows commands to download their AMD?
A: TMMCA
Q81: Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command?
A: EDVR
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1 Customs, Honors, and Traditions
2.1.6Naval Customs
1 Proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage?
A: Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson
Q82: Why was the song “Anchors Aweigh” written?
A: To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906
Q83: What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway?
A: The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it.
Q84: What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to
the U.S. fleet units?
A: Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet
Q85: Which of these statements is true regarding “Anchors Aweigh”?
A: It is played today at many athletic events and parades.
Q86: Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navy’s heritage.
These days are ____.
A: Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navy’s Birthday (13 October)
Q87: Why did some Americans oppose the establishment of a Navy?
A: All the answers are correct.
Q88: Have there been any changes or additions to the original version of “Anchors
Aweigh”?
A: Midshipman George D. Lottman rewrote the lyrics into their present form so that they could be
usable today at a wide range of events.
A: Midshipman Royal Lovell wrote a third stanza.
Q89: A popular use of the “Navy Hymn” is for the funerals of those who have served in or
with the United States Navy. A president whose funeral included this hymn was
____________________.
A: Franklin D. Roosevelt
Q90: What person or group of people was actually the first to expend funds to obtain
services from a sea service in opposing the British military?
A: George Washington used funds to contract for several schooners to intercept British supply
ships.
Q91: In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the
War of Independence?
A: All the answers are correct.
Q92: What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to
the U.S. fleet units?
A: Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet headquarters.
Q93: Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered
appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle?
A: All the answers are correct.
Q94: What is the “Navy Hymn’s” connection to the United States Naval Academy?
A: The first stanza of the “Navy Hymn” is sung to close each chapel service during Sunday’s Divine
Services
Q95: Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was
necessary for what purpose(s)?
A: All the answers are correct
Q96: The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason?
A: Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning
point in favor of the United States.
Q97: The author of “Anchors Aweigh”, Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of
recognition by the midshipmen?
A: All the answers are correct.
Q98: Why was the date of 13 October selected to celebrate the tradition and history of the
naval service?
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A: It was on that day in 1775 that the Continental Congress voted to establish a Navy by outfitting
two sailing vessels to intercept British transports
Q99: Where did the song known as the “Navy Hymn” to United States Navy men and
women originate?
A: It is one of many compositions by American bandmaster John Philip Sousa.
A: A schoolmaster and clergyman of the Church of England wrote the original words around 1860.
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Navy Fleets
2.1.7Second and Fourth Fleets
1 Navy units operating in the eastern Atlantic during the Second World War
______________.
A: All the answers are correct
2 The U.S. Navy reorganized its forces in 1922, assigning most of its ships to the
Pacific in response to ______________.
A: the growing threat that Japan represented
3 Completed in 1914, what allowed the U.S. Navy to rapidly transfer ships between
the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans?
A: The Panama Canal
4 The AOR (area of responsibility) of U.S. Fleet Forces Command (USFFC) includes
which of the following geographical areas?
A: The western portion of the Atlantic Ocean, from the North Pole to the Caribbean, and the Gulf
of Mexico.
5 During World War II, ______________ numbered fleets were responsible for
operations in the Atlantic Ocean.
A: Three
6 During World War I, ______________ ships were assigned to the Atlantic Fleet.
A: nearly all
7 The opening of the Panama Canal enabled U.S. warships to transfer between the
Atlantic and Pacific oceans ______________.
A: In less than 1/3 the time
8 What event prompted the United States to declare war on Spain in 1898?
A: The sinking of the USS MAINE
9 The Atlantic Squadron was reorganized into the Atlantic in early 1941, because
______________.
A: Of the possibility of war breaking out in both the Atlantic and Pacific oceans
10 U.S. warships enforced the blockade during the 1962 Cuban Missile Crisis by
sinking all Soviet-flagged vessels approaching the island.
A: False
11 Which of the following squadrons has never operated in the area encompassed by
the U.S. Navy’s Second Fleet?
A: North Africa Squadron
12 Among the Navy’s roles during the First World War was ______________.
A: All the answers are correct
13 Part of us fleet forces command’s mission set is to serve as the naval component
of.
A: Do not know
14 Navy units operating in the eastern Atlantic during WWII:
A: All answers are correct
15 The Fourth Fleet’s normal area of responsibility (AOR) is within which geographic
combatant commander’s AOR?
A: USSOUTHCOM
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2.1.8Fifth Fleet
1 The past two decades have seen ______________ in Navy operations conducted in
Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR).
A: an increase
16 What failed operation was credited for increasing the emphasis on training for joint
operations?
A: Operation EAGLE CLAW
17 The focus of Operation NEW DAWN will be on conducting ______________
operations.
A: Stability
18 Over ______________ of the world’s oil reserves are located in the area of
responsibility (AOR) of the Fifth Fleet.
A: 50%
19 What role did the U.S. Navy NOT play during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?
A: rescuing hostages
20 Navy and Marine aircraft executed almost 80% of the U.S. strikes in Afghanistan
during what operation?
A: Operation ENDURING FREEDOM
21 When was the first massive buildup of U.S. naval forces in the Fifth Fleet’s area of
responsibility (AOR)?
A: Late 1970’s
22 Operation NEW DAWN symbolizes ______________.
A: the diminishing role of U.S. forces in Iraq
23 About ______________ of the oil exported from Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility
(AOR) transits through the Strait of Hormuz—a vital choke point.
A: 90%
24 How many operational units are permanently assigned to the Fifth Fleet?
A: 0
25 Which fleet is assigned to the smallest area of responsibility (AOR)?
A: Fifth Fleet
26 The Navy’s Fifth Fleet is part of ______________.
A: USCENTCOM
27 Which of the following is NOT a choke point found in the Fifth Fleet’s area of
responsibility (AOR)?
A: Malacca Strait
28 Which significant event marked the first massive buildup of U.S. forces in what is
now the Fifth Fleet AOR?
A: Not soviet invasion of Afghanistan
29 Fifth Fleets Headquarters is located in ______?
A: Bahrain
30 Which Fleet has the smallest AOR?
A: 5th Fleet
31 Operation NEW DAWN is the successor to Operation _______?
A: Iraqi Freedom
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2.1.9Sixth Fleet
1 Europe, Africa, and Mediterranean operations in World War I included ______________.
A: convoying ships across the Atlantic Ocean
2 laying some 60,000 mines
A: clearing minefields after the war
3 The Sixth Fleet is assigned to ______________.
A: Commander, Naval Forces Europe
4 NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) is dual-hatted as ______________.
A: Commander USEUCOM
5 The Sixth Fleet received its designation in ______________.
A: 1950
6 A division of U.S. battleships operated as part of the British Grand Fleet during World
War I.
A: True
7 During World War II, the Navy conducted amphibious operations in ______________.
A: Sicily
A: North Africa
A: South Italy
8 The Sixth Fleet is headquartered in ______________.
A: Naples, Italy
9 The Navy’s North Sea Mine Force conducted mine warfare against the German Navy in
World War II.
A: False
10 NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) is dual-halted as ______.
A: Not sixth Fleet
11 Six Fleets area of responsibility encompasses ________.
A: The geographic area of USEUCOM and USAFRICOM
12 Following the Civil War, ships of Africa Squadron were tasked to suppress __________.
A: The Slave Trade
13 The Navy’s first overseas installation was established at __________.
A: Port Mahon
14 Which of the following attributes describe Sixth Fleet’s area of responsibility? (Select all
that apply).
A: All Answers
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2.1.10Pacific Fleet
Q100: Since the end of World War II, which of the following operations involved the Seventh
Fleet?
A: All are correct
Q101: During the Civil War, what was the greatest Threat in the Pacific?
A: Confederate Commerce Raiders
Q102: Which of the following was NOT a result of the Spanish-American War in the Pacific?
A: Establishment of NATO
Q103: The acquisition of the Philippines was important for the U.S. Navy because it allowed
them to __________.
A: establish a major operating base and repair facility in the Pacific
Q104: The U.S. Navy's presence in what is now the Pacific Fleet dates back to what time
era?
A: Early 1800's
Q105: During the War of 1812, the USS Essex proceeded to capture or destroy fourteen
ships belonging to which country?
A: Britain
Q106: Which of the following was NOT a squadron established after the Civil War?
A: East Indies Squadron
Q107: Which external force caused the U.S., for the first time, to shift the major weight of
American sea power to the pacific?
A: The rising Threat of Japan
Q108: The AOR of today's Seventh Fleet includes which of the following geographical areas?
A: From the international date line to the 68th east meridian, and from the Kuril Islands to the
Antarctic.
Q109: Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy's Third Fleet located?
A: San Diego, CA.
Q110: In the period between the two World Wars, what was the mission of the U.S. Navy in
the Pacific?
A: All the answers are correct.
Q111: Who were the two primary commanders in the Pacific theater during World War II?
A: Admiral Nimitz and General MacArthur
Q112: When did the U.S. Navy move the headquarters of the Pacific Fleet from the west
coast to Hawaii?
A: 1940's.
Q113: When was the first time the majority of American sea power was assigned to the
Pacific?
A: 1920's
Q114: Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the Battle of Leyte Gulf?
A: General MacArthur began his invasion to capture Okinawa
Q115: Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy's Pacific Fleet located?
A: Pearl Harbor, Hawaii.