Missouri State University, Springfield - CIS 720CIS720 exam 2: 100% Score.

Missouri State University, Springfield - CIS 720CIS720 exam 2 1. _____ means the project’s processes and products meet written specifications. a. Conformance to requirements c. Project feasibility b. Fitness for use d. Benchmarking 2. _____ means that a product can be used as it was intended. a. Conformance to requirements c. Critical chain scheduling b. Fitness for use d. Free slack 3. Process improvement plan, quality metrics, and quality checklists are the outputs of the _____ process of project quality management. a. controlling quality c. quality certification b. planning quality management d. performing quality assurance 4. A _____ is a standard of measurement in quality management. a. milestone c. merge b. metric d. matrix 5. The _____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling. a. quality planning c. quality assurance b. quality certification d. quality control 6. Performing quality assurance is a subprocess of the _____ process of project quality management. a. initiating c. monitoring and controlling b. closing d. executing 7. Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the _____ subprocess of project quality management. a. initiating c. monitoring and controlling b. closing d. executing 8. _____ is a technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process. a. Design of experiments c. Activity-on-arrow b. Backward pass d. Crashing 9. _____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Validity d. Functionality 10. _____ are the system’s special characteristics that appeal to users. a. Features c. Yields b. Outputs d. Metrics 11. _____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer’s intended use. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality 12. _____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality 13. _____ addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality 14. _____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization. a. Prototyping c. Mind mapping b. Systems thinking d. Benchmarking 15. _____ refers to action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations. a. A process adjustment c. An acceptance decision b. Rework d. Validation 16. _____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements. a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions b. Rework d. Decomposition 17. A _____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time. a. statistical sampling chart c. Six Sigma chart b. Pareto chart d. control chart 18. _____ help users to identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system. a. Gantt charts c. Control charts b. Pareto charts d. Tracking Gantt charts 19. _____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. a. Statistical sampling c. System testing b. Conformance d. Fitness for use 20. Six Sigma’s target for perfection is the achievement of no more than _____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities. a. 1.34 c. 34 b. 3.4 d. 13.4 21. Projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow a five-phase improvement process called _____. a. DMAIC c. configuration management b. weighted scoring model d. use case modeling 22. Important tools used in the _____ phase of the DMAIC process include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data. a. define c. analyze b. measure d. improve 23. An important tool used in the _____ phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram. a. define c. analyze b. measure d. improve 24. A ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed). a. skewed distribution c. bimodal distribution b. normal distribution d. degenerate distribution 25. A(n) _____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements. a. defect c. deliverable b. yield d. variance 26. The _____ is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities problems. a. ISO 9000 c. seven run rule b. six 9s of quality rule d. Six Sigma rule 27. A(n) _____ is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible. a. integration test c. user acceptance test b. unit test d. system test 28. ____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system. a. Integration testing c. User acceptance testing b. Unit testing d. System testing 29. Which of the following is one of Deming’s 14 Points for Management? a. An organization should increase dependence on inspection to achieve quality. c. Minimize total cost by working with multiple suppliers rather than a single supplier. b. Award business based on price tag alone rather than on other considerations. d. Eliminate the annual rating or merit system. 30. One of Juran’s ten steps to quality improvement states that: a. an organization should minimize top management involvement in the achievement of individual employee goals. c. an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement. b. an organization should entrust improvement to individual employees rather than appointing teams or facilitators. d. an organization should avoid “keeping score” in order to achieve an overall atmosphere of quality improvement. 31. _____ wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects. a. Juran c. Crosby b. Ishikawa d. Deming 32. _____, a quality system standard is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization. a. Seven run rule c. Six Sigma b. ISO 9000 d. ASQ 33. _____ is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range. a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost 34. _____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer. a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost 35. _____ helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes. a. SQFD c. OPM3 b. MTBI d. CMMI 1. _____ involves assigning the needed personnel to work on the project. a. Planning human resource management c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team 2. Key outputs of _____ process are project staff assignments, resource calendars, and project management plan updates. a. managing the project team c. developing the project team b. acquiring the project team d. planning the human resource plan 3. _____ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team 4. The main outputs of the _____ process are team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factors updates. a. managing the project team c. developing the project team b. acquiring the project team d. human resource planning 5. _____ involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team 6. The acquiring of the project team is a subprocess associated with the _____ process of project human resource management. a. executing c. planning b. controlling and monitoring d. initiating 7. _____ a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology and proposed the hierarchy of needs theory. a. Sigmund Freud c. Carl Jung b. Abraham Maslow d. Philip Zimbardo 8. At the bottom of Maslow’s structure are _____ needs. a. esteem c. physiological b. self-actualization d. social C 9. _____ is at the top of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. a. Esteem c. Physiological b. Self-actualization d. Social B 10. Recognizing an employee as the “Star Performer of the Month” would be satisfying the _____ need of the Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. a. esteem c. physiological b. self-actualization d. safety A 11. The bottom four needs in Maslow’s structure are referred to as _____ needs. a. self-actualization c. safety b. deficiency d. growth B 12. The highest level of needs in Maslow’s structure is referred to as a _____ need. a. deficiency c. safety ...

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