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CPFA EXAM 2 VERSIONS WITH VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND  ANSWERS RATED A+

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CPFA EXAM 2 VERSIONS WITH VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND 
ANSWERS RATED A+

Which of the following reports can be used in measuring plan effectiveness and participant 
outcomes?
A) Number of terminated participants who elected to roll their accounts into IRAs.
B) Average deferral rate of participants in the plan.
C) Independent accountant's required annual audit of the plan.
D) Summary Annual Report. - B) Average deferral rate of participants in the plan.
All of the following are benefits of participant retirement readiness, EXCEPT:
A) Employers can better manage their workforce needs.
B) Participants receive a guarantee of lifetime income payments.
C) Employees may be more satisfied with their jobs when working for an employer that 
actively promotes retirement readiness programs.
D) Employers can work with service providers who have tools to assist participants in 
increasing retirement savings. - B) Participants receive a guarantee of lifetime income 
payments.
All of following are items to consider when developing a strategy to promote successful 
participant outcomes, EXCEPT:
A) What is the average life expectancy for the participants' beneficiaries?
B) Should investment advice be offered?
C) Is senior level management interested in promoting "retirement readiness"?
D) What type of participant education should be provided? - A) What is the average life 
expectancy for the participants' beneficiaries?
All of the following statements describe the re-enrollment process of reinvesting participant 
accounts in the plan's asset allocation funds, EXCEPT:
A) The re-enrollment of participant accounts is considered a behavioral finance method.
B) Participants are given the opportunity to "opt-out" of the re-enrollment of their account 
balances.
C) The goal of the re-enrollment process is to improve participant outcomes by 
automatically investing their account balances in asset allocation funds appropriate for their 
age.
D) Participant notices are not required. - D) Participant notices are not required.
Which statement regarding service providers is TRUE?
A) A TPA performs annual compliance testing.
B) A recordkeeper has the legal obligation to provide an interpretation of a plan provision.
C) An accountant processes the "money out" for a participant account.
D) A plan advisor is responsible for drafting annual safe harbor notices. - A) A TPA performs 
annual compliance testing.
Which statement regarding bundled service arrangements is TRUE?
A) Provides efficient contribution and distribution processes.
B) Requires less fiduciary oversight than an unbundled service arrangement.
C) Permits for specific single provider within the arrangement to be easily removed and 
replaced with another provider.
D) Typical arrangement involves a TPA and an insurance company. - A) Provides efficient 
contribution and distribution processes.
Based on behavioral finance research, which of the following is a best practice for 
producing successful participant outcomes?
A) Combining auto-enrollment with targeted education.
B) Adding a self-directed brokerage option.
C) Re-enrolling all participants into equity investments.
D) Offering group meetings that focus on participants' rational decision making. - A) 
Combining auto-enrollment with targeted education.
Company ABC and Company DEF are determined to be part of a related group of companies. 
All the following are TRUE except:
A) The employees of both ABC and DEF may end up participating in one plan.
B) ABC may be required to make contributions for its employees into DEF's plan.
C) DEF has the right to "opt out" and be excluded from the related group.
D) If DEF adopts a plan, ABC employees may be eligible for the plan. - C) DEF has the right to 
"opt out" and be excluded from the related group.
Which of the following plan designs may result in better participant deferral behavior?
A) Adding an employer matching contribution equal to 25% up to 12% of compensation 
deferred.
B) Adding a 3% nonelective safe harbor contribution.
C) Adding a 1,000 hours of service requirement to receive the employer matching 
contribution.
D) Adding a profit-sharing contribution. - A) Adding an employer matching contribution equal 
to 25% up to 12% of compensation deferred.

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[Solved] CPFA EXAM 2 VERSIONS WITH VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND  ANSWERS RATED A+

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CPFA EXAM 2 VERSIONS WITH VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS RATED A+ Which of the following reports can be used in measuring plan effectiveness and participant outcomes? A) Number of terminated participants who elected to roll their accounts into IRAs. B) Average deferral rate of participants in the plan. C) Independent accountant's required annual audit of the plan. D) Summary Annual Report. - B) Average deferral rate of participants in the plan. All of the following are benefits of participant retirement readiness, EXCEPT: A) Employers can better manage their workforce needs. B) Participants receive a guarantee of lifetime income payments. C) Employees may be more satisfied with their jobs when working for an employer that actively promotes retirement readiness programs. D) Employers can work with service providers who have tools to assist participants in increasing retirement savings. - B) Participants receive a guarantee of lifetime income payments. All of following are items to consider when developing a strategy to promote successful pa...
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CPFA EXAM 2 VERSIONS WITH VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND  ANSWERS RATED A+

CPFA EXAM 2 VERSIONS WITH VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS RATED A+ Which of the following reports can be used in measuring plan effectiveness and participant outcomes? A) Number of terminated participants who elected t...

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